Saturday, December 17, 2016

JN0-346 Enterprise Routing and Switching, Specialist (JNCIS-ENT)

JNCIS-ENT Exam Objectives (Exam: JN0-343 and JN0-346)

Layer 2 Switching and VLANs
Identify the concepts, operation, and functionality of Layer 2 switching for the Junos OS
Enterprise switching platforms
Bridging components
Frame processing
Identify the concepts, benefits, and functionality of VLANs
Ports
Tagging
Native VLANs and voice VLANs
Inter-VLAN routing
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor and troubleshoot Layer 2 switching and VLANs
Interfaces and ports
VLANs
Routed VLAN interfaces (RVI)

Spanning Tree
Identify the concepts, benefits, operation, and functionality of the Spanning Tree Protocol
STP and RSTP concepts
Port roles and states
BPDUs
Convergence and reconvergence
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure and monitor STP and RSTP
STP
RSTP

Layer 2 Security
Identify the concepts, benefits and operation of various protection and security features
BPDU, loop and root protection
Port security, including MAC limiting, DHCP snooping, Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) and IP source guard
Storm control
Identify the concepts, benefits and operation of Layer 2 firewall filtres
Filter types
Processing order
Match criteria and actions
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure and monitor Layer 2 security
Protection
Port security
Storm control
Firewall filter configuration and application

Protocol Independent Routing
Identify the concepts, operation and functionality of various protocol-independent routing components
Static, aggregate, and generated routes
Martian addresses
Routing instances, including RIB groups
Load balancing
Filter-based forwarding
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure and monitor various protocol-independent routing components
Static, aggregate, and generated routes
Load balancing
Filter-based forwarding

Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
Identify the concepts, operation and functionality of OSPF
Link-state database
OSPF packet types
Router ID
Adjacencies and neighbors
Designated router (DR) and backup designated router (BDR)
OSPF area and router types
LSA packet types
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor and troubleshoot OSPF
Areas, interfaces and neighbors
Additional basic options
Routing policy application
Troubleshooting tools
Realms

Intermediate System to Intermediate System (IS-IS)
Identify the concepts, operation and functionality of IS-IS
Link-state database
IS-IS PDUs
TLVs
Adjacencies and neighbors
Levels and areas
Designated intermediate system (DIS)
Metrics
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor and troubleshoot IS-IS
Levels, interfaces and adjacencies
Additional basic options
Routing policy application
Troubleshooting tools

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
Identify the concepts, operation and functionality of BGP
BGP basic operation
BGP message types
Attributes
Route/path selection process
IBGP and EBGP functionality and interaction
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure and monitor BGP
Groups and peers
Additional basic options
Routing policy application

Tunnels
Identify the concepts, requirements and functionality of IP tunneling
Tunneling applications and considerations
GRE
IP-IP
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure and monitor IP tunnels
GRE
IP-IP

High Availability
Identify the concepts, benefits, applications and requirements for high availability in a Junos OS environment
Link aggregation groups (LAG)
Redundant trunk groups (RTG)
Virtual Chassis
Graceful restart (GR)
Graceful Routing Engine switchover (GRES)
Nonstop active routing (NSR)
Nonstop bridging (NSB)
Bidirectional Forwarding Detection (BFD)
Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
Unified In-Service Software Upgrade (ISSU)
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure and monitor high availability components
LAG and RTG
Virtual Chassis
GR, GRES, NSR, and NSB
VRRP
ISSU

QUESTION: No: 1
Which two statements about RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)

A. RSTP is not backwards compatible with STP.
B. RSTP is backwards compatible with STP.
C. RSTP permits multiple root bridges within a Layer 2 domain.
D. RSTP permits only a single root bridge within a Layer 2 domain.

Answer: Click Here to view answers

QUESTION: No: 2
Which two port security features are dependent on the DHCP snooping database? (Choose two.)

A. MAC limiting
B. dynamic ARP inspection
C. IP source guard
D. storm control

Answer: Click Here to view answers

Explanation: B: Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) prevents Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) spoofing
QUESTION: No: 3
How many bytes of overhead does an IP-IP tunnel add to a packet?

A. 24 bytes
B. 28 bytes
C. 20 bytes
D. 14 bytes

Answer: Click Here to view answers


Explanation: Difference Between GRE and IP-IP Tunnel. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) and
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Tuesday, December 13, 2016

JN0-692 Service Provider Routing and Switching Support Professional

JNCSP-SP Exam Objectives (Exam: JN0-692)

IGP Troubleshooting
Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of how to troubleshoot OSPF, OSPFv3 and IS-IS issues on Junos devices
Routing issues
Neighbor/adjacency issues
Configuration issues

BGP Troubleshooting
Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of how to troubleshoot BGP issues on Junos devices
Peering issues
Routing issues
Next hop resolution issues
Route reflectors and confederations
Configuration issues

Routing Policy Troubleshooting
Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of how to troubleshoot routing policy issues on Junos devices
Forwarding table policy issues
IGP policy issues
BGP policy issues
MPLS policy issues
Configuration issues

MPLS and MPLS VPNs Troubleshooting
Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of how to troubleshoot MPLS and MPLS VPN issues on Junos devices
MPLS signaling plane issues
MPLS forwarding plane issues
Layer 3 VPN signaling plane issues
Layer 3 VPN forwarding plane issues
Layer 2 VPN signaling plane issues
Layer 2 VPN forwarding plane issues
VPLS signaling plane issues
VPLS forwarding plane issues
EVPNs
Configuration issues

Multicast Troubleshooting
Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of how to troubleshoot multicast issues on Junos devices
RP issues
SPT issues
PIM issues
NG M-VPNs
Configuration issues

Class of Service (CoS) Troubleshooting
Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of how to troubleshoot CoS issues
Classification and rewrite issues
Policer issues
Queuing/scheduling issues
Packet drop issues
Configuration issues

QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true about the OSPF 2-Way state? (Choose two.)

A. It is the normal state for neighbors that are the DR and BDR.
B. It is the normal state for two neighbors that are neither the DR nor BDR.
C. It indicates that a device cannot accept any more full adjacencies.
D. It indicates that communication between two neighbors is bidirectional.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
What is the primary mechanism that prevents BGP routing loops?

A. SPF tree
B. routing policy
C. the underlying IGP's loop prevention mechanism
D. AS path

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
What are two types of valid BGP messages? (Choose two.)

A. Open
B. Notification
C. Hello
D. Request

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
Your network is configured with a full mesh of MPLS LSPs between all devices. However, when
you enter the show route table inet.2 command on any device, no LSP routing information is
displayed.
Which statement explains why this is occurring?

A. The inet.2 table does not contain LSP routing information.
B. IGP routes have a better route preference, causing the LSPs to be hidden.
C. Advanced super-user permissions are required to access the inet.2 table.
D. A filter is applied that is preventing the LSPs from being installed in the inet.2 table.

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 5
You are experiencing packet drops in your network.
Which two CoS components would be responsible? (Choose two.)

A. policing
B. RED
C. classification
D. rewriting

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

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Tuesday, December 6, 2016

JN0-370 QFabric, Specialist (JNCIS-QF)

JNCIS-QF Exam Objectives (Exam: JN0-370)

QFabric System Concepts
Identify concepts, general functionality and architecture of QFabric systems
Components and architecture
Control/data plane connections
Software architecture and components
System functions
QFabric protocols
Describe site planning considerations and requirements
Pre-installation considerations

System Setup, Configuration and Troubleshooting
Configure and verify the basic elements of QFabric systems
System setup
Initial configuration (e.g., node groups)
Interfaces and LAGs
Demonstrate knowledge of how to monitor and troubleshoot system operations
Data/control plane discovery
Discovery protocol
Interface/port
System functions
System processes and services
Data/control plane connections
Troubleshooting tools - logs, traceoptions, Fabric Analyzer, Fabric Ping and Traceroute, Analyzer, 'beacon'
Core dumps
System-specific IP address and subnet assignments

Layer 2 Operations and Troubleshooting
Describe Layer 2 concepts, features and operations for QFabric systems
VLAN tagging, LAGs, STP
Connection types
Route exchange
Traffic flow and packet forwarding
Configure and monitor Layer 2 functionality for a QFabric system
Interfaces and VLANs
RSTP
Demonstrate knowledge of how to troubleshoot QFabric system Layer 2 operations
L2 protocol issues
Traffic flow issues

Layer 3 Operations and Troubleshooting
Describe Layer 3 concepts, features and operations for QFabric systems
L3 interfaces and LAGs
Routing (static, OSPF, BGP)
Route and address resolution
Traffic flow and packet forwarding
Configure and monitor Layer 3 functionality for a QFabric system
Interfaces and RVIs
Static routes, routing protocols
Demonstrate knowledge of how to troubleshoot QFabric system Layer 3 operations
L3 protocol issues
Traffic flow issues

Data Center Storage Fundamentals
Identify various data center storage technologies
Storage options
Deployment options and considerations
Storage device types
Storage access protocols
Describe Fibre Channel (FC) and Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) features
Concepts and components
Describe Data Center Bridging concepts and functionality
Priority-based flow control (PFC)
Enhanced Transmission Selection (ETS)
Quantized Congestion Notification (QCN)
Configure and monitor FCoE for a QFabric system
Interfaces and VLANs
FCoE interfaces and fabrics
Protocols
Demonstrate knowledge of how to troubleshoot FCoE in a QFabric system environment
Device login issues
Class of service issues
Traffic flow issues
Performance issues
Protocol issues

QUESTION 1
Which three statements are correct about the QFabric system control plane? (Choose three.)

A. It discovers and manages paths.
B. It manages FCoE-to-FC conversions.
C. It manages Layer 2 and Layer 3 load balancing between nodes and interconnects.
D. It discovers and provisions the system.
E. It manages routing and switching protocols.

Answer: A,D,E

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
The QFabric system data plane performs which three functions? (Choose three.)

A. It provides connectivity for network devices.
B. It manages routing and switching protocols.
C. It interconnects Node devices with the fabric.
D. It exchanges reachability information.
E. It forwards traffic through devices of the system.

Answer: A,C,E

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
You are determining the DC power requirements for a QFX3000-M QFabric system.
Which two devices support DC power? (Choose two.)

A. a QFX3100 Director device
B. a QFX3600-I Interconnect device
C. a QFX3500 Node device
D. a QFX3800-I Interconnect device

Answer: B,C

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
You configured a BGP peering session between your QFabric system and an attached device, but
the session is not coming up.
What are two reasons for this happening? (Choose two.)

A. The inet protocol family is not configured on the QFabric system.
B. There is a mismatching MED attribute configured.
C. There are no RVIs configured on the QFabric system.
D. The QFabric system is configured with two network Node groups.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

QUESTION 5
You have recently connected an aggregated interface between a server Node group and a blade
chassis switch and the interface is down.
Which three reasons would explain the interface being down? (Choose three.)

A. The interface is using an unsupported or malfunctioning transceiver.
B. Both sides of the connection have set LACP active.
C. Both sides of the connection have set LACP passive.
D. Aggregated interfaces are only supported on the network Node group.
E. Spanning tree BPDUs have been received on the aggregated interface.

Answer: A,C,E

Explanation:

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Friday, December 2, 2016

JN0-360 Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist (JNCIS-SP)

JNCIS-SP Exam Objectives (Exam: JN0-360)

Protocol-Independent Routing
Identify the concepts, operation and functionality of various protocol-independent routing components
Static, aggregate, and generated routes
Martian addresses
Routing instances, including RIB groups
Load balancing
Filter-based forwarding
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure and monitor various protocol-independent routing components
Static, aggregate, and generated routes
Load balancing
Filter-based forwarding

Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
Identify the concepts, operation and functionality of OSPF
Link-state database
OSPF packet types
Router ID
Adjacencies and neighbors
Designated router (DR) and backup designated router (BDR)
OSPF area and router types
LSA packet types
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor and troubleshoot OSPF
Areas, interfaces and neighbors
Additional basic options
Routing policy application
Troubleshooting tools

Intermediate System to Intermediate System (IS-IS)
Identify the concepts, operation and functionality of IS-IS
Link-state database
IS-IS PDUs
TLVs
Levels and areas
Designated intermediate system (DIS)
Metrics
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor and troubleshoot OSPF
Areas, interfaces and neighbors
Additional basic options
Routing policy application
Troubleshooting tools

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
Identify the concepts, operation and functionality of BGP
BGP basic operation
BGP message types
Attributes
Route/path selection process
IBGP and EBGP functionality and interaction
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure and monitor BGP
Groups and peers
Additional basic options
Routing policy application

Layer 2 Bridging and VLANs
Identify the concepts, operation, and functionality of Layer 2 bridging for the Junos OS
Service Provider switching platforms
Bridging elements and terminology
Frame processing
Virtual Switches
Provider bridging (e.g., Q-in-Q tunneling)
Identify the concepts, benefits, and functionality of VLANs
Port modes
Tagging
MVRP
IRB
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor and troubleshoot Layer 2 bridging and VLANs
Interfaces and ports
VLANs
MVRP
IRB
Provider bridging

Spanning-Tree Protocols
Identify the concepts, benefits, operation, and functionality of Spanning Tree Protocol and its variants
STP, RSTP, MSTP and VSTP concepts
Port roles and states
BPDUs
Convergence and reconvergence
Spanning-tree security
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor and troubleshoot STP and its variants
Spanning-tree protocols - STP, RSTP, MSTP, VSTP
BPDU, loop and root protection

Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) and MPLS VPNs
Identify the concepts, operation, and functionality of MPLS
MPLS terminology
MPLS packet header
End-to-end packet flow and forwarding
Labels and the label information base (LIB)
MPLS and routing tables
RSVP
LDP
Identify the concepts, benefits, operation, and functionality of MPLS VPNs
VPN routing tables
Layer 3 VPN terminology and components
BGP Layer 2 VPN terminology and components
LDP Layer 2 circuit terminology and components
Virtual private LAN service (VPLS) terminology and components
MPLS VPN control plane traffic flow
MPLS VPN data plane traffic flow
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure and monitor MPLS
MPLS forwarding
RSVP-signaled and LDP-signaled LSPs

IPv6
Identify the concepts, operation and functionality of IPv6
IPv4 vs. IPv6
Address types, notation and format
Address scopes
Autoconfiguration
Tunneling
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure and monitor IPv6
Interfaces
Static routes
Dynamic routing - OSPFv3, IS-IS, BGP
IPv6 over IPv4 tunneling

Tunnels
Identify the concepts, requirements and functionality of IP tunneling
Tunneling applications and considerations
GRE
IP-IP
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure and monitor IP tunnels
GRE configuration
IP-IP configuration

High Availability
Identify the concepts, benefits, applications and requirements of high availability
Link aggregation groups (LAG) and multichassis LAGs (MC-LAGs)
Graceful restart (GR)
Graceful Routing Engine switchover (GRES)
Nonstop active routing (NSR)
Nonstsop bridging (NSB)
Bidirectional Forwarding Detection (BFD)
Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
Unified In-Service Software Upgrade (ISSU)
Ethernet Ring Protection (ERP)
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure and monitor high availability component
LAG, MC-LAG
Additional basic options
GR, GRES, NSR and NSB
VRRP
ISSU

QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true about MPLS VPNs? (Choose two.)

A. With Layer 3 VPNs, the provider’s routers participate in the customer’s Layer 3 routing.
B. MPLS VPNs are designed to run over private networks rather than the public Internet.
C. With Layer 2 VPNs, the provider does not participate in the routing of the customer’s private IP traffic.
D. MPLS VPN tunnels are always encrypted.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
Which label operation is performed by an MPLS transit router?

A. inject
B. pop
C. push
D. swap

Answer: D

Explanation: http://www.juniper.net/techpubs/software/junos-security/junos-security96/junossecurity-
swconfig-interfaces-and-routing/mpls-ov.html

QUESTION 3
Which Junos platform supports provider bridging?

A. T Series devices
B. SRX Series devices
C. MX Series devices
D. MAG Series devices

Answer: B

Explanation: http://www.juniper.net/techpubs/en_US/junos10.0/information-products/pathway-
pages/mx-series/ethernet-switching-mx-series.html

QUESTION 4
In which environment would you run BGP?

A. a company spread across multiple floors of a building
B. a company with a single office
C. a home network
D. the public Internet

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION 5
For a network running single-area OSPF, how would you decrease the size of the link-state
database (LSDB)?

A. Implement RIP as an overlay protocol on all devices.
B. Add more devices to the OSPF network to help with LSDB processing.
C. Reduce the frequency of hello timers throughout the network.
D. Implement OSPF areas.

Answer: D

Explanation:
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Saturday, November 26, 2016

Exam MB6-702 Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 R3 Financials

Exam MB6-702 Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 R3 Financials

Published: December 23, 2014
Languages: English, Chinese (Simplified), Japanese
Audiences: IT professionals
Technology: Microsoft Dynamics AX
Credit toward certification: Specialist

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.

Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.

If you have concerns about specific questions on this exam, please submit an exam challenge.

If you have other questions or feedback about Microsoft Certification exams or about the certification program, registration, or promotions, please contact your Regional Service Center.

Configure Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 R3 (25–30%)
Set up the General Ledger, chart of accounts, and journals
Create a chart of accounts; create and categorize main accounts; identify main account types; create financial dimensions and dimension sets; configure account structures; create advanced rule structures; create organizational units and hierarchies; create fiscal calendars, years, and periods; create date intervals; create reason codes; define journal names; define allocation rules and allocation basis; create system accounts; create journal texts; set up intercompany accounting; define General Ledger parameters
Define cash and bank management and procedures
Create bank transaction types and groups; define bank parameters; create payment purpose codes, bank groups, and bank accounts; define check layouts
Set up Accounts Payable and Accounts Receivable
Create payment schedules and terms, create a payment day, define cash discounts and payment fees, create payment methods, create vendor accounts, create vendor groups, define vendor posting profiles, assign a vendor posting profile, form setup and print management, define matching policies and tolerances, create charges and charge groups, define aging periods
Set up currencies and sales tax
Set up currencies, currency types, and exchange rates; create ledger posting groups; create sales tax authorities; create sales tax settlement periods; create sales tax codes; create sales tax groups; set up item sales tax groups; set up a sales tax jurisdiction

Manage Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 R3 (25–30%)
Manage General Ledger daily and periodic procedures
Create a General Ledger journal, post multiple journals, approve journals, create a voucher template, create a periodic journal, reverse a General Ledger transaction, manage journal transaction inquiries and reports, create journal controls, revalue foreign currency, process financial consolidation, post a sales tax payment
Manage Accounts Payable daily and periodic procedures
Create vendor invoices, create invoice journals, revalue foreign currency, generate vendor payments, manage vendor postdated checks
Manage Accounts Receivable daily and periodic procedures
Create customer invoices, create free text invoices, revalue foreign currency, apply customer payments, manage customer collections
Manage commitment accounting and cash flow
Configure dependent ledger accounts, set up cash flow forecasting, define a cash flow forecast budget model, create and calculate cash flow transactions
Manage advanced payments
Set up bridge accounts, manage electronic vendor and customer payments, manage centralized payments and prepayments (deposits), administer a bill of exchange, manage direct debit mandates
Maintain bank accounts
Checks and deposit slips, void and refund checks, manage bank remittance and payment reversals, reconcile a bank account

Define and manage budgets (15–20%)
Plan budgets
Identify budget components, identify budgeting methodologies, create organizational hierarchies, define budget stages, define budget allocation terms, configure budget plans, configure budget allocation schedules, configure support for budget planning templates
Control budgets
Plan for budget controls; identify budget control components; set up, create, and revise budgets; define the budget funds available calculation; define budget cycles; create budget control rules and budget groups; manage budget reporting; manage integrated budgeting; create budget transfers
Create basic budgets
Define budget dimensions, create budget models and codes, create budget register entries, define and create encumbrances, manage purchase order encumbrances, process year-end purchase orders

Configure and manage Fixed Assets (20–25%)
Configure the Fixed Assets module
Set up the Fixed Assets module, create value models, create Fixed Asset groups, set up Fixed Asset parameters, manage reason codes in the Fixed Assets module, manage depreciation methods and conventions, manage depreciation books, manage provision types and bonus depreciation, update depreciation conventions for a depreciation book, set up depreciation profiles
Set up assets
Identify Fixed Assets module components; manage Fixed Asset forms; set up assets in the Fixed Assets module; lend assets; assign bar codes to assets, budget assets; integrate other modules with Fixed Assets
Manage asset transactions
Identify typical Fixed Asset transaction types; record acquisitions and acquisition proposals; create and acquire Fixed Assets from purchase orders; record depreciation, value adjustments, and disposals; manage transaction reversals; manage replacement costs and update insured values; copy Fixed Assets and change Fixed Asset groups; manage Fixed Asset additions
QUESTION 1
You need to create a fixed asset that records depreciation quarterly.
Which form should you use to configure the period frequency for posting depreciation?

A. Value models
B. Depreciation profiles
C. Special depreciation allowance
D. Depreciation books

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which three methods can you use to assign bar codes to fixed assets? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A. Automatically assign the bar codes when you create fixed assets.
B. Assign the bar codes to fixed assets groups.
C. Automatically assign the bar codes based on the fixed asset journal type.
D. Assign the bar codes to current fixed assets.
E. Manually assign the bar codes when you create fixed assets.

Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION 3
You need to configure a workflow to approve all budget amounts at the line level.
Which workflow configuration type should you use?

A. Budget register entry workflow
B. Ledger fixed assets budget journal workflow
C. Budget plan workflows
D. Budget account entry workflow

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You need to ensure that you have the most current data to manage customer collections.
What should you create first?

A. A customer account statement
B. A customer balance list
C. A customer aging snapshot
D. A customer pool

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two elements are required to create a budget plan in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A. Budget plan priority
B. Budget plan preparer
C. Budget planning user group
D. Budget planning process

Answer: A,C
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Wednesday, November 9, 2016

650-669 CSPVDMD Cisco SP Video Digital Media Design for SE for Validating Knowledge

650-669 CSPVDMD Cisco SP Video Digital Media Design for SE
for Validating Knowledge (not for Cisco Certification)


2013 Cisco Systems, Inc. This document is Cisco Public. Page 1
Cisco SP Video Digital Media Design for SE (650-669)
Exam Description: The 650-669 Cisco SP Video Digital Media Design for SE (CSPVDMD) exam is a 45-minute test with 25–35 questions. The exam tests a candidate's knowledge on designing a digital media solution, configuring and testing the solution, and comparing it against competitive solutions by articulating key differentiators. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Authorized Service Provider Video Partner Digital Media track of training, including Phases I, II, and III.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content that is likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific instance of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, these guidelines may change at any time without notice.

100% 1.0 SE Cisco SP Video Digital Media Design
QUESTION 1
Which two video formats are supported by the Cisco OCMG? (Choose two.}

A. ATSC
B. 3G
C. HD
D. DVB-C

Answer: C,D

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
When configuring backup on the Cisco ROSA EM. What information must be entered for each
device that is connected to a video router?

A. the physical port connections of the backup equipment to the router
B. the physical port connections of the primary equipment to the router
C. the physical port connections of the backup and primary equipment to the router relations
D. relations between the router and the primary and backup equipment in the DHB

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
Which two SDI input hardware configurations are available on one Cisco DCM IP gateway card?
(Choose two.)

A. 3 input and 3 output
B. 6 input
C. 6 input and 6 output
D. 12 input
E. 12 output

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
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Friday, October 28, 2016

820-427 BTBBSS Building Business Specialist Skills (BTBBSS)

Exam Number 820-427 BTBBSS
Associated Certifications Cisco Enterprise IT Business Specialist
Duration 90 Minutes (60 - 70 questions)
Available Languages English
The 820-427 Building Business Specialist Skills exam tests a candidate's knowledge of skills to effectively discover opportunities for IT value, design, and ability to oversee development of business-focused solutions plus translate among business and IT language. These abilities are highly valued by IT and Line of Business leaders, as indicators than an IT professional has the expertise and influence to deliver superior business impacts.

This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of skills to effectively discover opportunities for IT value, design, and oversee development of business-focused solutions plus translate among business and IT language. These abilities are highly valued by IT and Line of Business leaders, as indicators that an IT professional has the expertise and influence to deliver superior business impacts. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Building Business Specialist Skills course (BTBBSS).

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

1.0 Business Context 9%

1.1 Describe the purpose of an organization's vision, mission, strategy, objectives, and initiatives

1.2 Compare and contrast Critical Success Factors (CSFs) and Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)

1.3 Contrast strategy, management, and operations

1.4 Compare frameworks used across business and IT efforts

1.4.a Enterprise architecture (i.e., TOGAF, COBIT)
1.4.b Quality (i.e., Six Sigma)
1.4.c Service management (i.e., ITIL)
1.4.d Program management (i.e., MSP, MOP)
1.4.e Project management (i.e., PMBOK, Prince II, APMP)

2.0 Research Techniques and Tools 10%

2.1 Compare and contrast business-focused investigative techniques and tools (i.e., workshops, observation, primary research, questionnaires, interviews, focus groups)

2.2 Use and apply business-focused investigative techniques and tools

2.3 Apply technology discovery methods to gather information (i.e., usage patterns, external industry research papers, conferences, monitoring tools)

3.0 Business Analysis and Business Case 17%

3.1 Create a stakeholder map and conduct stakeholder analysis

3.2 Identify relevant business scenarios

3.3 Create an analysis of business capabilities

3.4 Construct gap analysis and document pain points/opportunities.

3.5 Identify elements of a cross-functional business diagram.

3.6 Describe the structure of a business case.

3.7 Create and verify the value proposition as the foundation of the business case.

3.8 Describe how to use a business case through the life cycle, to approval for investments

4.0 Technology and Trends 13%

4.1 Describe the as-is state: current services and how to optimize them for maximum value

4.2 Describe how technology impacts an organization's business capabilities

4.2.a Describe consequences of not changing outdated technologies
4.2.b Describe consequences of adopting emerging or new technologies

4.3 Identify the enterprise architecture taxonomy and how its components interrelate

4.4 Demonstrate ability to work with business and technology subject matter experts to research and assess options for technology improvement

4.5 Discover technology advances and explain how they impact business value

5.0 Technology Analysis 16%

5.1 Analyze business requirements to determine technology requirements

5.2 Identify existing technology capabilities

5.3 Formulate needed technology capabilities

5.4 Evaluate technology gaps

5.5 Compare possible technology solutions and map them to existing technology capabilities and stakeholder viewpoints

5.6 Formulate one or more recommendations based on possible technology solutions

5.7 Design a Proof of Concept and analyze the results

5.8 Employ techniques to align technology requirements with business capabilities

5.9 Evaluate potential internal and external technology solutions

5.9.a Analyze whether existing technology can be leveraged to solve business problems
5.9.b Provide technology requirements (domain knowledge) to include within RFIs/RFPs/RFQs
5.9.c Grade the responses to RFIs/RFPs/RFQs
5.9.d Assess considerations of different IT solution deployment strategies

5.10 Evaluate the non-financial impact of technologies, trends, and consumption models as they apply to business solutions

6.0 Finance Basics and Project Management 13%

6.1 Apply financial terms in the context of evaluating a simple business case

6.2 Describe and apply technology consumption and pricing models in a business context

6.2a Hardware
6.2b Software Licensing
6.2c Internal and external support and professional services
6.2d Cost of operations
6.2e Lifecycle management
6.2f Pay as you use models
6.2g CAPEX to OPEX

6.3 Describe implications of budgeting practices

6.3.a How budgets affect decisions within an organization
6.3.b Charge back, show back
6.3.c Project bundling

6.4 Describe how value is created and managed within an enterprise

6.4.a Defining Value
6.4.b Balancing risk versus rewards
6.4.c Approaches and influences on financial investment decisions

6.5 Develop portions of a financially justified business case, to answer key questions and support achievement of results

6.5.a Calculate return on the investment
6.5.b Compare against cost of capital
6.5.c Identify level of risk
6.5.d Define how the business cases helps in translating benefits into financial value
6.5.e Calculate ROI, Total cost of ownership, time to value, break-even point

6.6 Explain how project management helps to promote successful outcomes

6.7 Explain core principles, methods, and techniques for effectively managing projects

6.8 Describe how to influence a project implementation to ensure success

6.9 Demonstrate ability to perform risk analysis (financial, operational, and strategic)

6.10 Create a risk mitigation plan

7.0 Implementation and Adoption 10%

7.1 Demonstrate ability to work with delivery teams to ensure implementations meet requirements

7.2 Demonstrate ability to work with management team to plan for and ensure successful adoption of technology solutions

7.3 Collect metrics, analyze against KPIs and CSFs, and report back to senior management

7.4 Create the phased roadmap for implementation and adoption

7.5 Calculate the impact of technological change on people and processes

7.6 Demonstrate ability to incorporate IT change management best practice principles within a solution proposal

7.7 Construct requirements for adoption of IT solutions into the business

8.0 Communications and Influence 12%

8.1 Articulate technical information in a clear and concise manner

8.2 Apply core communication skills effectively

8.3 Demonstrate ability to deliver information effectively

8.3.a Vary communications level of detail, style, scope, by audience (i.e.one on one, group, executive)
8.3.b Align messages to the audience
QUESTION 1
What two statements correctly describe vision or mission? (Choose two.)

A. A mission is a statement of the purpose of a company.
B. A vision is what a company wants to become in the mid-term or long-term future.
C. A vision describes actions the organization will take to achieve specific goals.
D. A mission identifies the company's planned investments to increase revenue.
E. A vision is only used by for-profit companies.
F. A mission is only used by public sector organizations.

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
What two statements are true about Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)? (Choose two.)

A. A KPI is a quantifiable metric of the performance of essential operations and/or processes in an organization.
B. A KPI provides the focal point for identifying how much risk a company can take in trying to avoid government fines.
C. A KPI could reflect the performance of Service Providers in achieving their goals and objectives.
D. KPIs are based on judgment, and therefore should be used carefully when defining the value of a technology solution.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
Which is a critical first step when thinking about how to communicate technical content to a senior business manager?

A. Identify a person on her staff who can explain details.
B. Listen to the customer to understand her KPIs.
C. Plan out your message to explain potential options.
D. Draft a high level message using language pulled from the top IT vendors.

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
Your company wants to increase sales by selling in new countries and by getting more repeat
orders and revenue from current customers. What is one technique that can help to communicate
how technology solutions can improve business outcomes?

A. Prepare a detailed cause and effect model.
B. Benchmark different technology solutions to identify the best mix of hardware and software.
C. Prepare a visual diagram showing the current business operation and possible future scenarios
with different technology solutions in place.
D. Create a document that has a summary of current problems followed by detailed descriptions of
technology features that reduce operating costs.

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 5
When asked about IT skills gaps, where does "Speak business language" fall in a list of concerns?

A. "Speak business language" would be helpful to improve, but not among the most critcal gaps.
B. The ranking varies depending on the industry and whether the business person is new in their job.
C. "Speak business language" is consistently mentioned as a top concern for IT professionals.
D. "Speak business language" is a very low priority but moving higher because business people
need to learn the terms for technologies like cloud.

Answer: C

Explanation:

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Wednesday, October 26, 2016

200-105 ICND2 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2

Exam Number 200-105 ICND2
Associated Certifications CCNA Routing & Switching
Duration 90 Minutes (45-55 questions)
Available Languages English, Japanese

This exam tests a candidate's knowledge and skills related to LAN switching technologies, IPv4 and IPv6 routing technologies, WAN technologies, infrastructure services, and infrastructure maintenance.

The Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (200-105 ICND2) exam is a 90-minute, 45–55 question assessment that is associated with the associated with the CCNA Routing and Switching certification. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge and skills related to LAN switching technologies, IPv4 and IPv6 routing technologies, WAN technologies, infrastructure services, and infrastructure maintenance.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.


Subscribe to Cisco Learning Network Premium and access the most comprehensive e-learning training, resources and tools you’ll need to prepare for your CCENT, CCNA and CCNP Routing and Switching certifications.

1.0 LAN Switching Technologies 26%

1.1 Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VLANs (normal/extended range) spanning multiple switches

1.1.a Access ports (data and voice)
1.1.b Default VLAN

1.2 Configure, verify, and troubleshoot interswitch connectivity

1.2.a Add and remove VLANs on a trunk
1.2.b DTP and VTP (v1&v2)

1.3 Configure, verify, and troubleshoot STP protocols

1.3.a STP mode (PVST+ and RPVST+)
1.3.b STP root bridge selection

1.4 Configure, verify, and troubleshoot STP-related optional features

1.4.a PortFast
1.4.b BPDU guard

1.5 Configure, verify, and troubleshoot (Layer 2/Layer 3) EtherChannel

1.5.a Static
1.5.b PAGP
1.5.c LACP

1.6 Describe the benefits of switch stacking and chassis aggregation

1.7 Describe common access layer threat mitigation techniques

1.7.a 802.1x
1.7.b DHCP snooping
1.7.c Nondefault native VLAN

2.0 Routing Technologies 29%

2.1 Configure, verify, and troubleshoot Inter-VLAN routing

2.1.a Router on a stick
2.1.b SVI

2.2 Compare and contrast distance vector and link-state routing protocols

2.3 Compare and contrast interior and exterior routing protocols

2.4 Configure, verify, and troubleshoot single area and multiarea OSPFv2 for IPv4 (excluding authentication, filtering, manual summarization, redistribution, stub, virtual-link, and LSAs)

2.5 Configure, verify, and troubleshoot single area and multiarea OSPFv3 for IPv6 (excluding authentication, filtering, manual summarization, redistribution, stub, virtual-link, and LSAs)

2.6 Configure, verify, and troubleshoot EIGRP for IPv4 (excluding authentication, filtering, manual summarization, redistribution, stub)

2.7 Configure, verify, and troubleshoot EIGRP for IPv6 (excluding authentication, filtering, manual summarization, redistribution, stub)

3.0 WAN Technologies 16%

3.1 Configure and verify PPP and MLPPP on WAN interfaces using local authentication

3.2 Configure, verify, and troubleshoot PPPoE client-side interfaces using local authentication

3.3 Configure, verify, and troubleshoot GRE tunnel connectivity

3.4 Describe WAN topology options

3.4.a Point-to-point
3.4.b Hub and spoke
3.4.c Full mesh
3.4.d Single vs dual-homed

3.5 Describe WAN access connectivity options

3.5.a MPLS
3.5.b MetroEthernet
3.5.c Broadband PPPoE
3.5.d Internet VPN (DMVPN, site-to-site VPN, client VPN)

3.6 Configure and verify single-homed branch connectivity using eBGP IPv4 (limited to peering and route advertisement using Network command only)

4.0 Infrastructure Services 14%

4.1 Configure, verify, and troubleshoot basic HSRP

4.1.a Priority
4.1.b Preemption
4.1.c Version

4.2 Describe the effects of cloud resources on enterprise network architecture

4.2.a Traffic path to internal and external cloud services
4.2.b Virtual services
4.2.c Basic virtual network infrastructure

4.3 Describe basic QoS concepts

4.3.a Marking
4.3.b Device trust
4.3.c Prioritization
4.3.c. [i] Voice
4.3.c. [ii] Video
4.3.c. [iii] Data
4.3.d Shaping
4.3.e Policing
4.3.f Congestion management

4.4 Configure, verify, and troubleshoot IPv4 and IPv6 access list for traffic filtering

4.4.a Standard
4.4.b Extended
4.4.c Named

4.5 Verify ACLs using the APIC-EM Path Trace ACL analysis tool

5.0 Infrastructure Maintenance 15%

5.1 Configure and verify device-monitoring protocols

5.1.a SNMPv2
5.1.b SNMPv3

5.2 Troubleshoot network connectivity issues using ICMP echo-based IP SLA

5.3 Use local SPAN to troubleshoot and resolve problems

5.4 Describe device management using AAA with TACACS+ and RADIUS

5.5 Describe network programmability in enterprise network architecture

5.5.a Function of a controller
5.5.b Separation of control plane and data plane
5.5.c Northbound and southbound APIs

5.6 Troubleshoot basic Layer 3 end-to-end connectivity issues

QUESTION 1
Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist
for that communication?

A. transport
B. network
C. presentation
D. session
E. application

Answer: E

Explanation:
This question is to examine the OSI reference model.
The Application layer is responsible for identifying and establishing the availability of the intended communication partner and determining whether sufficient resources for the intended communication exist.
QUESTION 2
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?

A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link

Answer: A
Explanation:
FTP belongs to Application layer and it is also the highest layer of the OSI model.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)

A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.

Answer: A,D

Explanation:
The transport layer segments data into smaller pieces for transport. Each segment is assigned a sequence number, so that the receiving device can reassemble the data on arrival.
The transport layer also use flow control to maximize the transfer rate while minimizing the requirements to retransmit. For example, in TCP, basic flow control is implemented by acknowledgment by the receiver of the receipt of data; the sender waits for this acknowledgment before sending the next part.
The Network layer (Layer 3) has two key responsibilities. First, this layer controls the logical addressing of devices. Second, the network layer determines the best path to a particular destination network, and routes the data appropriately.
QUESTION 4
Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?

A. application
B. internet
C. network
D. transport

Answer: B
QUESTION 5
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?

A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Modern Ethernet networks built with switches and full-duplex connections no longer utilize CSMA/CD. CSMA/CD is only used in obsolete shared media Ethernet (which uses repeater or hub).

QUESTION 6
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)

A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.

Answer: B,D,E

Explanation:
Microsegmentation is a network design (functionality) where each workstation or device on a network gets its own dedicated segment (collision domain) to the switch. Each network device gets the full bandwidth of the segment and does not have to share the segment with other devices. Microsegmentation reduces and can even eliminate collisions because each segment is its own collision domain ->.
Note: Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions but it increases the number of collision domains.


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Monday, October 17, 2016

300-360 WIDESIGN Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks

Exam Number 300-360
Associated Certifications CCNP Wireless
Duration 90 Minutes (60 – 70 questions)
Available Languages English
This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of identifying customer and application requirements, applying predictive wireless design principles and conducting site surveys needed to design and optimize Enterprise wireless networks
The Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDESIGN) exam (300-360) is a 90-minute, 60-70 question assessment that is associated with the CCNP Wireless certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of identifying customer and application requirements, applying predictive wireless design principles and conducting site surveys needed to design and optimize Enterprise wireless networks.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content that is likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific instance of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, these guidelines may change at any time without notice. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDESIGN) course.
1.0 Obtaining Customer Requirements as Related to the WLAN Installation 12%

1.1 Identify business and RF application needs
1.2 Identify client density, capabilities and their impact on the wireless network
1.2.a Client quantity, radio type, spatial streams
1.3 Identify the challenges of setting up a wireless network by various vertical markets
1.4 Describe required site survey documentation
1.4.a Customer questionnaire
1.4.b Floor plans & their quality
1.4.c Describe the deliverables of the site survey
1.5 Identify coverage area requirements
1.5.a Mesh
1.5.b High density
1.5.c Security sensitive
1.5.d Real time applications
2.0 Determine Facility Type and Constraints Related to WLAN Deployments 12%

2.1 Describe impact of regulatory domains
2.1.a Mesh
2.1.b Channel and power
2.1.c Multi-national deployments
2.2 Identify deployment location safety considerations
2.3 Identify the impact of customer aesthetic limitations on the installation
2.4 Assess the existing wired and wireless infrastructure
2.4.a Determine high-throughput and very high throughput (VHT) protocol (n/ac) impact
2.4.b Determine existing wireless infrastructure if required
2.5 Identify impact of material attenuation
2.5.a Walls, cubicles, and the likes
2.5.b Single/multi-floor
2.5.c Campus
2.5.d Warehouse/retail
2.5.e Subtitle number 2.2
3.0 WLAN Predictive Design 14%

3.1 Select the criteria used for coverage design
3.1.a Data vs voice vs video vs location
3.2 Demonstrate the impact of frequency planning in a high density environment
3.2.a Band select for high density
3.2.b Optimize 2.4 GHz radio utilization
3.2.c Legacy devices
3.2.d Channel width
3.3 Use PI and Ekahau planning tools to make network plan
3.3.a Enter network requirements in the tool
3.3.a.[i] Capacity requirements
3.3.a.[ii] Coverage requirements
3.3.b Define the environment
3.3.b.[i] Maps and scale
3.3.b.[ii] Types of RF obstacles
3.3.c Place and configure simulated APs and antennas
3.3.c.[i] Place simulated APs (manual, automatics)
3.3.c.[ii] Adjust APs and Antennas / AP TX power height and down tilt
3.3.d Analyze key network metrics using heat maps for 2.4 and 5GHz
3.3.d.[i] Analyze coverage, SNR, and channel overlap
3.3.d.[ii] Analyze AP placements in regards to real time handoffs around corner
4.0 Pre-Deployment Site Survey 14%

4.1 Identify the appropriate site survey equipment and access requirements based on environmental needs
4.2 Complete the Layer 2 site survey for indoor, and outdoor MESH environments
4.2.a Select proper AP and antenna for conducting site survey
4.2.b Configure AP
4.2.c Survey for worst case client
4.3 Complete Layer 1 survey (Cisco CleanAir, Metageek Chanalyzer)
5.0 Post-Deployment Site Survey 15%

5.1 Verify RF coverage
5.1.a Utilize tools (Ekahau) for audit
5.1.b RRM, controller
5.1.c Analyze SNR, channel overlap, and packet loss
5.2 Verify network applications and performance
5.2.a Apply PI tools (voice readiness, location readiness, site calibration)
5.3 Reconcile any deployment issues
5.4 Assemble and deliver installation report to customer
5.4.a Indoor
5.4.b Outdoor MESH
6.0 Design the Infrastructure of the Wireless Network 15%

6.1 Determine physical infrastructure requirements
6.1.a AC Power and POE
6.1.b Understand cable plant considerations
6.1.c Mounting considerations: NEMA
6.1.d Outdoor grounding and lighting protection
6.1.e Rack capacity
6.1.f Switch port capacity
6.2 Determine logical infrastructure requirements
6.2.a Determine AP count, controller count, and license requirements
6.2.b Decide the type of architecture for the deployment
6.3 Describe IPv6 optimization on the WLC
6.3.a RA filter
6.3.b DHCP Server guard
6.3.c DHCPv6 Source guard
7.0 Describe and Design Wireless Architecture for Real time Applications 18%

7.1 Describe the relationship between real time applications & the wireless networks
7.1.a Packet Error Rate (PER)
7.1.b RF Coverage
7.1.c Bit Error Rate (BER)
7.1.d QoS
7.1.e Call Admission Control (CAC)
7.1.f Client roaming decision algorithm
7.2 Describe voice and video as they apply to the wireless network
7.2.a Device capabilities (hardware and software)
7.2.b Call setup/data flow overview
7.2.c Other wireless voice and video services (i.e. Jabber, Lync, Skype, Viber, Facetime)
7.2.d Standards and WIFI Alliance (WFA) certifications (.11r, .11e, .11n/ac, .11k, CCKM, voice enterprise, voice personal, WMM, UAPSD)
7.2.e Cisco Compatible Extensions (voice features)
7.2.f Voice and video codecs
7.2.g Skinny Client Control Protocol (SCCP)
7.2.h Session Initiation Protocol (SIP)
7.3 Describe real time applications (other than voice and video) as they apply to the wireless network
7.3.a Session based and non-session based
7.3.b Roaming sensitivity
7.3.c Disconnection issue
7.4 Design wireless roaming parameters for supporting real time applications
7.4.a 802.11 r/k, CCKM, OKC, mobility groups, interface groups,
7.4.b Tuning RF parameters
7.4.c AP placement considerations
7.5 Design wireless parameters for supporting real time applications
7.5.a Minimum speed requirements-RSSI and SNR
7.5.b Client transmit and receive sensitivity / mismatch with AP
7.5.c Cell overlap requirements
7.5.d Cell separations
7.5.e Traffic control and management, QoS, VLAN, WMM, AVC
7.5.f Delay and jitter requirements
7.5.g CAC and TSPEC
7.5.h Spectrum
7.5.i 802.11n/ac enhancements
7.5.j Concurrent client connections
7.5.k Band select
QUESTION 1
An engineer is conducting a location readiness test and wants a selected point to be considered location-ready. Which three possible configurations reflect the minimum number of APs needed? (Choose three.)
A. One AP is resident in each quadrant surrounding the point-in-question.
B. One AP per 1400 sq. ft. on the map.
C. Two APs are resident in each quadrant surrounding the point-in- question.
D. Four APs are deployed on the floor.
E. Three APs are within 70 feet (21 meters) of the point-in- question
F. Three APs are deployed on the floor.
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
A point in a WLAN deployment is location ready if the following are all determined to be true:
At least four access points are deployed on the floor.
At least one access point is found to be resident in each quadrant surrounding the point-in-QUESTION NO:. At least one access point residing in each of at least three of the surrounding quadrants is located within 70 feet of the point-in-QUESTION NO:. Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Borderless_Networks/Unified_Ac cess/ CMX/CMX_LocFund.pdf
QUESTION 2
A customer has a business-critical voice network and wants to be alerted whenever voice clients move out of a coverage area and experience RSSI below -67 dBm on the 5 GHz band. Which option can be configured on the wireless controller to alert network administrators when this limit is surpassed?
A. EDCA; voice optimized
B. SIP voice sample interval
C. 802.11a voice RSSI coverage threshold
D. traffic stream metrics
Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which two factors influence the density of APs in a data-only WLAN environment? (Choose two.)
A. the number of clients that will roam through the facility
B. the type of controller chosen
C. the defined coverage area and customer needs
D. the number of APs dedicated to voice services
E. channel reuse and WLAN bandwidth
Answer: C,E
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Thursday, September 29, 2016

650-127 CGE Authorized Connected Grid Engineer Knowledge Verification

Exam Number 650-127
Duration 60 minutes (55-60 questions)
Available Languages English

This exam will test the knowledge of system engineers and field engineers regarding the features, functions, design, and planning for deployment of the Cisco Connected Grid technology solution. There will be a focus on the features and benefits of the Cisco 2010 Connected Grid Router (CGR 2010) and the Cisco 2500 Series Connected Grid Switch (CGS 2500). The solution deployment planning will include design, configuration, implementation, and integration.

Exam Topics
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

Introduction to Cisco Connected Grid Go-to-Market and Product Positioning
How to Sell
Cisco Connected Grid Ordering and Support
Cisco 2010 Connected Grid Router (CGR) Product Overview
Cisco 2500 Connected Grid Switch (CGS) Product Overview
Cisco Connected Grid Solutions

QUESTION 1
Which of the following models supports Power over Ethernet?

A. CGS-2520-24TC
B. CGS-2520-16S-8PC
C. All CGS models
D. None of the modelsupportsPOE

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is not a supported PDI Help Desk function?

A. design and configuration support
B. technical product question
C. implementation questions and support
D. On site support
E. RFP review

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
Which function is available on the Cisco Series 2500 Connected Grid Switch?

A. EnergyWise
B. inputs and outputs for alarms
C. GRWIC modules
D. StackWise

Answer: C

Explanation:
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Wednesday, September 28, 2016

650-082 MITSE Mobile Internet Technology for System Engineers

Exam Number 650-082
Duration 60 minutes (55-65 questions)
Available Languages English

This exam will test System Engineer's knowledge of features, functions and design of the Cisco ASR 5000 mobile internet solution. There will be a focus on design and planning for deployment. Candidates should prepare for this exam by taking the Mobile Internet Technology for Account Managers course as the MIT SE exam covers content from both the AM and SE training courses.

Exam Topics
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

Describe ASR 5000 Hardware and Software
Describe Understanding the StarOS Command Line Interface (CLI)
Describe Software Licensing and Upgrade
Describe ASR 5000 Core services for GPRS/UMTS - SGSN and GGSN Functionalities
Describe the Design and Implementation of xGSN
Describe Billing & Policy
Describe Statistics and Alarms
Describe Services Overview
Describe the Design and Implementation of LTE

QUESTION 1
What Cisco ASR 5000 services are needed for communication between a Serving Gateway and
Packet Data Network Gateway?

A. EGTP and GTPU
B. GTPU and PGW
C. SGW and GTPU
D. EGTP and SGW

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which option helps to define activities that are needed to successfully deploy and operate Cisco
technologies?

A. Smart Services
B. Cisco lifecycle Services
C. TAC
D. Cisco Technical Services

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which card has the resources to run multiple services?

A. system management card
B. switch processor I/O card
C. packet service card
D. redundant crossbar card

Answer: C
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Sunday, September 25, 2016

650-059 LCSARS Lifecycle Services Advanced Routing and Switching

Exam Number 650-059
Duration 60 minutes (45-55 Questions)
Available Languages English and Japanese
Register Pearson VUE

The 650-059 LCSARS Lifecycle Services Advanced Routing and Switching exam tests a candidate's knowledge and skills for the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach to help successfully sell, deploy, and support Cisco technologies and optimize their performance. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the LCSARS Lifecycle Services Advanced Routing and Switching course.

Exam Topics
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

Describe the value of Cisco Lifecycle Services for Advanced Routing & Switching
Identify the phases of the Cisco Lifecycle Services for Advanced Routing & Switching
Identify the value of the Cisco Lifecycle Services for Advanced Routing & Switching
Describe the value of the service components included in the Prepare phase
Describe the value of the service components included in the Plan phase
Describe the value of the service components included in the Design phase
Describe the value of the service components included in the Implement phase
Describe the value of the service components in the Operate phase
Describe the value of the Service Component in the Optimize phase

Describe the value of the activities in each phase of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach
Describe the value of the activities included in the Prepare phase
Describe the value of the activities included in the Plan phase
Describe the value of the activities included in the Design phase
Describe the value of the activities in the Implement phase
Describe the value of the activities included in the Operate phase
Describe the value of the activities included in the Optimize phase

QUESTION 1
Which two of these activities comprise the problem management service component in the operat
phase? (choose two.)

A. send a replacement module
B. schedule a maintenance window
C. manage the problem
D. identify the problem
E. confirm roles and responsibilities

Answer: C,D

QUESTION 2
Identify a customer support model for the solution is an activity thet is part of which service
component in the plan phase?

A. operations readiness assessment
B. planning project kickoff (deployment project management)
C. operations plan development
D. system requirements validation

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which three of these service components are included in the optimize phase? (choose three.)

A. change management
B. security administration
C. technology assessment
D. operations assessment
E. operations readiness assessment
F. security assessment

Answer: C,D,F
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Thursday, September 22, 2016

Exam 70-981 Recertification for MCSE: Private Cloud

Published: August 13, 2014
Languages: English, Japanese
Audiences: IT professionals
Technology: Windows Server 2012
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSE

Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.

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Configure data center process automation
Implement workflows
Implement SCO Runbook automation; automate remediation of incidents, including resolution of System Center Virtual Machine‒based incidents; design and build end-to-end automation, incorporating System Center 2012 technologies; implement change control and problem resolution workflows
Implement service offerings
Add a new service offering to the service catalog, create a custom workflow using the Service Manager console, reference Orchestrator workflows in Service Manager, implement self-service provisioning of virtual machines

Deploy resource monitoring
Deploy end-to-end monitoring
Deploy agents, discover and deploy network device monitoring, import and configure management packs, deploy and configure monitoring of a heterogeneous virtualization infrastructure
Configure end-to-end monitoring
Configure overrides, create synthetic transactions, configure Outside-In monitoring, configure application performance monitoring (APM), create distributed application models, integrate the monitoring infrastructure with Global Service Monitor (GSM)
Create monitoring reports and dashboards
Implement service-level tracking; implement reports, including chargeback reports and System Center Manager data warehouse reports; implement dashboards

Configure and maintain service management
Implement service level management
Define service level objectives (SLOs) and service level agreements (SLAs); implement SLA management and escalation; maintain SLAs, including planning for future growth; analyze SLAs (reporting)
Manage problems and incidents
Customize problem management, link incidents to problems, and resolve problems; raise, assign, and resolve incidents; perform root cause analysis/diagnosis; integrate problem and incident resolution with change management; create and manage a knowledge base
Manage cloud resources
Deploy new applications to private and public clouds; deploy virtual machine (VM)/service (applications, SQL, roles), deploy multi-tier applications by using service templates, manage applications in private and public clouds, manage VM hardware (CPUs, dynamic memory), manage self service

Configure the fabric
Configure the storage fabric
Classification and pools, providers, arrays, file server cluster, storage pools, file shares
Configure the network fabric
Logical networks; VM networks; IP/MAC resource pools; VIP templates; load balancing; logical switches; network isolation, including network virtualization with Windows Server Gateway; private VLANs and VLANs
Configure and manage the deployment and update servers
Integrate a Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server into the Virtual Machine Manager fabric; configure and manage a library server; integrate Windows Deployment Services (WDS)/PXE into the Virtual Machine Manager fabric, including virtualization host deployment using Windows Deployment Services (WDS)
Configure clouds and virtualization hosts
Clouds and host groups, configure and deploy virtualization hosts

Configure System Center integration
Configure private cloud integration
Configure Operations Manager connectors; Orchestrator integration packs; Service Manager connectors; SharePoint integration; configure IP Address Management (IPAM) server integration, configure AppController
Configure integration of private and public clouds
Configure Service Provider Framework (SPF), configure Windows Azure Pack for Windows Server
QUESTION 1
You need to implement a solution to meet the IM requirements for the help desk users.
What should you do?

A. Install Unified Communications Managed API 3.0 Runtime on LON-SM1.
B. Install the Lync 2010 client on LON-SM1.
C. Create a Service Manager workflow.
D. Create an IM channel.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Ref: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh495482.aspx
QUESTION 2
You need to implement the alert notifications. The solution must meet the technical requirements. A Lync Server administrator enables an account named ADATUM\IMUser for Unified Communications. What should you do next?

A. Configure ADATUM\IMUser as a Run As Account. Install the Lync Management Pack. Create a notification subscriber and an IM channel.
B. Create a mailbox for the ADATUM\IMUser account Install the Exchange Server Management Pack. Create a notification subscriber and an SMTP channel.
C. Create a mailbox for the ADATUM\IMUser account. Install Microsoft Visual C++ 2008 Runtime. Create a notification subscriber and an SMTP channel.
D. Configure ADATUM\IMUser as a Run As Account. Install Unified Communications
Managed API 3.0 Runtime. Create a notification subscriber and an IM channel.

Answer: D
QUESTION 3
You need to recommend a solution to remediate the Exchange Server 2010 service failures. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A. Create a service request workflow that triggers a dependent activity.
B. Create an incident event workflow that triggers a dependent activity.
C. Create an incident event workflow that triggers a runbook activity.
D. Create a service request workflow that triggers a runbook activity.

Answer: C
QUESTION 4
You need to recommend a solution to meet the monitoring requirements for App2.
What should you include in the recommendation? (More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)

A. An aggregate rollup monitor
B. A distributed application
C. A dependency rollup monitor
D. Service monitors

Answer: B
QUESTION 5
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the sales department managers can create instances of App1 in Cloud1.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A. A subscription in App Controller and a task in Service Manager
B. A dashboard in Operations Manager and a distributed application
C. A task in Operations Manager and a distributed application
D. A service offering in Service Manager and a runbook in Orchestrator

Answer: D
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Tuesday, September 20, 2016

650-032 MITAM Mobile Internet Technology for Account Managers

QUESTION 1
Which two features are benefits of CDMA? (Choose two)

A. Rich VPN features
B. Fully standard complaint
C. Requirements of ANSI-41 GSM MAP conversion mode
D. Application transparency
E. Extensive QOS functionality

Answer: C,D

QUESTION 2
Which feature allows the MITG to provide industry-leading reliability?

A. ECS
B. ICSR
C. ATCS
D. Packet service card

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which company offers seamless migration to 4G?

A. Nokia Siemens Network
B. Cisco
C. Ericson
D. Huawei

Answer: B

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Thursday, September 15, 2016

648-238 CCPS1 Implementing Cisco Connected Physical Security 1 Exam

Exam Number 648-238 CCPS1
Duration 90 minutes (75-85 questions)
Available Languages English, Japanese
Register Pearson VUE

This exam tests the Sales and Field Engineer's knowledge of the Cisco IP Video Surveillance solution. Candidates will be tested on basics of digital video, hardware and software components of the Cisco VSM solution, configuration and design of IP Video Surveillance. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Cisco IPVS course offered by Cisco Advance Services Education.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

Exam Topics
VSM components
Describing video codecs, resolutions, protocols
Video traffic flow and design for efficient bandwidth utilization
Describing the Hardware - servers, storage, end-points
Platform configuration
End-point configuration
Application configuration
Managing roles, events, and reports
Best practices, maintenance, and troubleshooting

QUESTION 1
Order the following resolutions, by pixel count, from lowest to highest.

A. D1, HD, QCIF, CIF
B. D1, CIF, 4CIF, HD
C. QCIF, CIF, D1, HD
D. QCIF, D1, CIF, HD

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
What are the two differences between interlaced and progressive scan video? (Choose two.)

A. Progressive scan video is generally better with fast-moving objects
B. Interlaced video is generally better with fast-moving objects
C. Interlaced video is constructed out of alternating odd and even lines
D. Progressive scan video is constructed out of alternating odd and even lines

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
Where should outdoor surveillance cameras be mounted when nearby sources of light are
present?

A. The camera should be mounted lower than the light source.
B. The camera should be mounted in parallel with the nearest light source.
C. The camera should be mounted above the light source.
D. Location does not matter, as long as the camera is day/night capable.

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
What is the correct camera and lens setup for the use of IR lighting?

A. Color camera with IR corrected lens
B. A camera with day/night mode and IR corrected lens
C. A camera with day/night mode and varifocal lens
D. Color camera with varifocal lens

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 5
Which switch port capability is recommended for an MSP server?

A. Server switch ports should have 10/100 Mb capability
B. Server switch ports should have 1000 Mb capability
C. Server switch ports should have 10 Gb capability
D. Servers should be connected to PoE-capable switches

Answer: B

Explanation:
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