About Adobe Certified Expert (ACE) Exams An Adobe Certified Expert demonstrates expertise in helping clients realize
value in an Adobe solution.
Adobe's certification exams follow industry-accepted procedures to ensure
validity and reliability. We work with industry experts to create our exams,
which represent real-world requirements and objectives for the job roles we
certify.
This guide is designed to provide the recommendations needed to prepare for your
Adobe Certified Expert exam, and help you determine when you are ready to take
the exam.
AAM Architect General Exam Information • Exam name: AAM Architect Exam
• Exam number: AD0-E452
• Number of questions: 81
• Time limit: 135 minutes
• Format: multiple choice, multiple select
• Language offered: English
• Delivery: online proctored (requires camera access) or test center proctored
• Passing score: All Adobe exams are reported on a scale of 300 to 700. The
passing score for each exam is 550. For more information about scaled scoring,
visit the FAQs.
• Exam price: $180 (Ready to register, click here.)
AAM Architect Exam Target Audience • 2 years of experience with Audience Manager
• 3 or more years of experience with data management platforms
• Experience with digital marketing technology stacks and various platform
integrations
• Understands clients’ unique business requirements and can develop customized
solutions
The AAM Architect Role The AAM Architect should be able to perform the following tasks without any
assistance:
• Guide the configuration of the Experience Cloud ID service and Audience
Manager libraries
• Implement, validate and troubleshoot the integration with complimentary
systems to Audience Manager (e.g., analytics, personalization, CRM and media
systems)
• Develop actionable solutions with Audience Manager data exports (e.g., CDF and
ID syncs)
• Understand identity and profile management
• Ingesting data from various sources (e.g., CRM, web and mobile)
AAM Architect Exam Topics The tasks measured on the exam are grouped into the following domains:
Architect Solutions • Given a scenario, determine attribute and behavioral data and map them to
specific business use cases
• Given a scenario, assess existing customer digital marketing investments for
data integration opportunities
• Given a scenario, recommend customer product strategies for audience and
activation
• Define the process for data collection, processing and activation
• Configure a Profile Merge Rule for an identity management use case
• Integrate AAM with other Experience Cloud products
Implementation • Apply procedural concepts for choosing a data collection approach based on
a client’s marketing/advertising technology stack
• Configure and deploy data collection code
• Validate network traffic for AAM deployment on a client’s web site
• Given a scenario, troubleshoot ECID, declared ID services and 3rd party ID
sync integration using web developer console or related tools
• Outline appropriate APIs calls for given use cases
Incorporating Data into Audueince Manager • Given a scenario, architect a full taxonomy based on client data
points/use cases
• Given a scenario, develop an onboarding plan aligned with the business use
cases
• Apply procedural concepts to integrate digital online data types
• Apply procedural concepts to onboard offline data types
Activation and Export • Given a scenario, determine the appropriate destination configuration
parameters
• Given a scenario, architect data flows between Audience Manager and
destinations
• Given customer's data analysis needs, identify appropriate data exports
• Given a scenario, analyze a dataset for data insights
Distribution of Content Covered on the Exam: The questions on the exam are distributed as follows for each domain. (Note:
each question carries the same weight and there is no partial credit for any
question)
Domain
Percent of Exam
Architect Solutions 39%
Implementation 24%
Incorporating Data into Audience Manager 23%
Activation and Export 10%
How do I know if I am ready to take the exam? Nothing can guarantee that you will pass your test, however; the more
practical work experience you have and the more training you complete, the
better your chances are to pass the test.
Since Adobe exams measure knowledge and skills for a specific job role, one of
the best ways to prepare for the exam is to ensure you have the minimum work
experience, as described in this guide.
What training is available to help me prepare for the exam?
Is training required?
You are not required to complete training before taking the exam; however,
training can significantly increase your knowledge of and skills with Adobe
Audience Manager. It is important to note that training alone will not provide
you with the knowledge and skills required to pass an exam. Successful,
on-the-job experience, is critical to providing you the knowledge needed to pass
the exam.
Training for Adobe Partners A variety of training and resources are available for Adobe Solution
Partners. To access these resources, you will need to login to the Solution
Partner Portal with your Adobe ID and visit the Training landing page. From
there you can select your solution of interest and access on-demand, instructor
led, and onsite training options.
• On-demand Training: All Partners have access to on-demand training resources
for sales, technical and delivery roles. This includes self-paced learning
modules, eSeminar videos, quizzes, exams, and test outs to help measure
comprehension - All at no cost!
• Virtual Instructor Led Training: Partners at the Business and above levels can
access Virtual Instructor Led Training through the learning management system.
These trainings are 100% subsidized.
• In-person Instructor Led Training: Partners also have access to training
delivered through Adobe Digital Learning Services (ADLS). Adobe Digital Learning
Services offers comprehensive, hands-on courses across all job roles. Learn from
Adobe experts in a virtual classroom or live in-person at any Adobe training
center globally. Courses come with a cost and Partners receive a discount
(15-30%) based on their
Partner level in the Solution Partner Program. • On-site Training: Get your team up-to-speed quickly with on-site training
where we can come to your location or you can bring your team to one of our
training centers. Adobe Digital Learning Services offers flexible, convenient
instructor-led training for teams virtually or in-person. Content can be
customized to match your unique learning requirements.
Partners also have access to Certification Learner Journeys, Certification
Paths, and free Certification Prep courses. Please visit the Solution Partner
Portal Certification page to access these valuable resources.
Not registered for the Solution Partner Portal? Please follow these instructions
to get registered.
How Do I Register for the Exam? To register for the exam at a PSI testing center:
1. Visit Adobe’s credential management system logon page. The logon requires
that you have an Adobe ID. If you do not have an Adobe ID, click the link for
“Get an Adobe ID”
2. After logging on, If you have never taken an Adobe exam before, you will be
instructed to create a Profile. After creating your Profile, you will be
instructed to update your opt-in Settings..
3. Once logged on, click “Home” then click “Schedule your exam at PSI.”
4. You will be directed to a new page within CertMetrics where you will click
“Click here to log in to PSI.”
5. You will be taken to a page hosted by our exam delivery vendor, PSI, that
displays the available exams
6. Scroll through the list of available exams and press the “Schedule Exam”
button for the exam you want to take.
7. Select a delivery mode for your exam by choosing either “Test Center” or
“Remote Online Proctored Exam.”
8. Select your exam language to see options for your exam.
9. Select an available date and start time.
10. Confirm schedule details to receive a booking confirmation.
11. Proceed to payment.
12. After payment is successful, you will receive an email confirmation your
registration details and a receipt.
QUESTION 1
A large bank needs to develop the taxonomy to manage its assets in the Audience Manager given the
following scenario:
Collects site activity data from multiple websites set up for a respective Line of Business (LOB)
Has extensive data available in CRM system on its current customers
Tracks media in DMP (Display, Video, Search, Social, etc.)
Has multiple teams and partners using the data available within Audience Manager for audience
development
Uses Audience Manager as a central platform to develop and activate audiences in owned and paid
channels
Which recommendation should an architect make for Traits name taxonomy development?
A. Indicate the name of the segment using the Trait in segment development
B. Indicate the destination partner, signal, and name of source of data
C. Indicate the name of the segment using the Trait and the destination partner
D. Indicate the collection method, signal, and name of source of data
Answer: B
QUESTION 2
An architect is examining the network traffic on a client’s website to verify that server-side forwarding is
working correctly.
What should the architect look for in the response to the Adobe Analytics call?
A. 2 × 2 image/gif
B. asynchronous iframe
C. “stuff”
D. “SUCCESS”
Answer: B
QUESTION 3
A retail customer users Adobe Analytics, Audience Manager, and Experience Cloud ID service. For the launch
of a new product, they want to capture and segment users based on the following data points:
1. Whether the user clicked the Homepage banner for the new product
2. Whether the user viewed the Product Detail Page for the new product
3. Whether the user added the new product to their cart
4. Whether the user completed a purchase of the new product
These data points will be used to build segments for the following use cases:
1. Re-target non-converters who showed interest in the product but did not convert
2. Next page site personalization for users who abandoned their cart
3. Instant suppression of recent converters
Which data collection method should the architect recommend?
A. DCS APIs
B. Customer Attributes
C. Server-Side Forwarding
D. Shared Audiences
Answer: B
QUESTION 4
A Marketing Manager launches a Display campaign and needs to track what media creative visitors are seeing
most often. The traits are set up properly, but do not show any data.
https://mysite.demdex.net/event?d_src=123654&d_site={%site_ID%}&d_creative={%creative_id%}
What is causing this issue?
A. The tag is missing the d_adsrc parameter.
B. The tag is missing the d_event parameter.
C. The tag is missing the d_adgroup parameter.
D. The tag is missing the d_placement parameter.
Answer: C
QUESTION 5
A client needs to send marketing emails using Adobe Campaign to all customers who have logged in to the
website within the past 30 days but have only bought products at a retail store location. These customers are
represented in AAM using the segment name of “1st Party: Recent Visitor – Retail Shoppers”.
Which identifier should an architect use to meet these requirements?
A. Declared ID
B. Experience Cloud ID
C. Profile ID
D. AAM UUID
QUESTION: 1
What is the maximum number of cores supported in the Cisco UCS M5 server?
A. 28
B. 22
C. 12
D. 8
Answer: A
QUESTION: 2 How many memory channels does the Cisco UCS M5 server support per CPU?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: C
QUESTION: 3 What is the maximum size of an HXDP cluster running 3.5.1?
A. 64 nodes
B. 8 nodes
C. 16 nodes
D. 32 nodes
Answer: A
QUESTION: 4 With which three components must every HyperFlex cluster be equipped with in
regard to disks?
(Choose three.)
A. NVMe drives
B. there are no specific requirements
C. same type of cache drives
D. same type and size of capacity of drives
E. same number of capacity drives
F. SAS drives
QUESTION 1 What happens to the printer warranty when a non-HP cartridge is used in an
HP printer?
A. If it is determined that the printer does not work due to the non-original HP
cartridges, HP will not cover the repair costs
B. The original HP Universal Print Driver will not support the printer anymore.
C. The printer will print at a lower quality but at a higher speed.
D. If the printer senses the non-original HP cartridge, it will report it to HP
to exclude the printer from warranty.
Answer: C
QUESTION 2 How does HP ensure that customers can trust purchasing original HP supplies
from the authorized channel?
A. Channel Management Inspections (CMIs)
B. channel audits
C. Channel Partner Protection Audits (CPPAs)
D. channel investigation
Answer: D
QUESTION 3 You are delivering your message of original HP versus non-original HP and
you want to make your
customer aware the best way to accomplish this?
A. by letting your customer use non-HP first and after they have an issue,
switch them back to original HP
B. by explaining the HP ink technologies in detail
C. by focusing on the tests done by Buyers Lab and Spencer Labs
C. by sending them the ink tests done by HP at the HP test center
Answer: A
QUESTION 4 A loyal HP small-to-midsized business (SMB) customer is looking to renew
their HP supplies. Which supplies program is correct for this customer?
A. Supplies Big Deals (SBD) only
B. Supplies Big Deals (SBD) with Managed Component
C. Managed Contract only
D. Supplies Big Deals (SBD) with Managed Contract and Resilient Technologies
If you possess the will to pass the HP HP2-H89 exam questions, then the first
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QUESTION: 1 Why are HP cartridges better for the environment?
A. They are made from recycled ocean plastic.
B. They use biodegradable plastic.
C. Both HP printers and cartridges are certified to meet the EPEAT and Blue
Angel criteria.
D. They use 100% recycled material.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 2 Which toner formulation is available from the original HP toner cartridges
with HP Jetlntelligence?
A. ColorLok
B. ColorSphere
C. PrecisionColor
D. BlackSphere
Answer: A
QUESTION: 3 Why does HP ensure that its printers work in temperatures from 0 to 40' C
and 80% humidity?
A. to meet the demands of customers located in such environments
B. because of the HP engineers wanting to determine printer reliability in such
harsh conditions
C. to prove their reliability in most print environments
D. because of the competition and the requirement in most RFPs/RFQs
Answer: A
QUESTION: 4 How can you ensure that your print fileet is compliant and maintains
compliance with company polices?
A. by using HP UPD to have only one driver for all printers
B. by enabling auto firmware updates on your printers regardless of their age
C. by using HP Security Manager's automated monitoring and risk-based reporting
D. by using HP EW5 to deploy updates to network printers when needed
Answer: B
QUESTION: 5 What describes HP Instant-on Security?
A. It ensures that HP Sure Start Is enabled from the moment that you install the
printer on the network.
B. It is another name for whitelisting.
C. It secures new HP devices as soon as they are added to the network through
auto discovery.
D. It is a feature of the HP toner that ensures that the toner instantly melts
to the paper at a lower temperature, making your printout instantly secure.
Exam Title: Oracle Risk Management Cloud 2018 Implementation Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-958
Exam Price: Rs.22,584.00 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 120 minutes
Number of Questions: 75
Passing Score: 65%
Validated Against: This exam has been validated against 18B. (Previous version
of this exam was validated against R13, and originally R12 in 2017)
Associated Certification Paths Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each
certification title below to view full requirements.
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional): Oracle Financials Cloud Learning Subscription
Unlimited Cloud Learning Subscription
Additional Preparation and Information A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs
and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.
Gather Requirements for Risk Management Implementation (fka Gather
Requirements for Financial Reporting Compliance Implementation) Describe Risk Management (fka Describe Financial Reporting Compliance)
Implement the Best Practice Process
Plan to gather information for the implementation
Describe Objects
Design Perspectives, both as it relates to security and reporting
Data Migration Assemble existing risk control matrix data
Explain the steps to import and export data
Populate an import template
Validate an import template prior to import
Troubleshoot errors during an import
Manage Objects
Describe how to create objects
Create Control Test Plans
Relate objects to one another
Create Review and Approve workflows for objects
Manage Issues Describe an Issue lifecycle
Create and manage issues
Manage the issue resolution process
Explain security for Issues
Advanced Access Controls (fka Application Access Controls Governor) Explain Entitlements
Create and manage Models and Controls
Configure Conditions
Explain Simulation and Remediation
Initial Financial Reporting Compliance Configuration (fka Initial
Configuration)
Configure a pod for Financial Reporting Compliance Implementation
Configure Module Objects
Configure and manage Lookups
Security Describe Job roles, Duty roles, and Data Security policies
Configure and assign Job and Duty roles
Configure and create Perspective-based Data Security policies
Describe jobs and processes related to security
Manage Assessments Explain planned and ad-hoc assessments
Initiate ad-hoc assessments
Create assessment templates and plans
Initiate planned assessments
Complete assessments
Initial Advanced Controls Configuration (fka Fusion GRC Set Up and
Administration)
Create and manage Perspectives
Configure security
Describe modules
Explain reporting
Advanced Financial Controls (fka Transaction Controls Governor) Describe Models and Controls
Configure Filters
Configure Functions
Configure Patterns
Explain Result Management
QUESTION 1 Which three steps can be performed by using the Configure Module Objects
pages? (Choose three.)
A. Choose display (or hide) configurable options for: results, events,
consequences and treatments.
B. Set “object-perspective” association.
C. Create object data import templates.
D. Edit the assessment activity question and guidance text for all assessment
types.
E. View assessment response details for all assessment types.
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 2 Which three are true about implementing a best practice solution for
Financial Reporting Compliance?
(Choose three.)
A. Large scope of project requires high effort for maintenance and
administration.
B. It promotes rapid implementation and go-live.
C. It promotes go-live with minimal acceptance testing and user training.
D. It provides maximum return on investment with minimum project risk.
E. It promotes successful adoption and minimizes on-going cost of operation.
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 3 How do you populate the Control Method field with a new custom value, such
as a third-party application’?
A. Enter the new value directly in the Control method field.
B. Use Lookup Meaning of the new lookup value.
C. Use Lookup Code of the new lookup value.
D. Use Lookup Type of the new lookup value.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which three risk assessment activity types are available in Financial
Reporting Compliance? (Choose three.)
A. Design Review
B. Qualitative Analysis
C. Quantitative Analysis
D. Certify
E. Audit
F. Assess Risk
Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 5 You are implementing Advanced Access Controls and there is a requirement for
a control to monitor user
access to specific, client-defined access points which give users the ability to
both initiate a purchase order
and approve payments on that purchase order.
Which is a valid option to implement the control?
A. From the “Access Entitlements” page create two entitlements containing the
respective client-defined
access points. Create an access model from the “Models” tab of Advanced
Controls, based on the entitlements you created.
B. Select Actions > Create Access Control from the “Controls” tab of Advanced
Controls.
C. Create an access model from the “Models” tab of Advanced Controls, and then
define an access point filter
for each individual client-defined access point.
D. From the “Access Entitlements” page create two entitlements containing the
respective client-defined
access points. Create an access model from the “Models” tab of Advanced
Controls, based on the
entitlements you created. Finally, deploy an access control in the “Controls”
tab of Advanced Controls, and
select the access model you created.
E. Create an access entitlement from the “Access Entitlements” page, then select
Actions > Create Access
Control from the “Controls” tab of Advanced Controls, and select the entitlement
you created.
Identity and Access Management Designer Study Guide
Chris GardnerNovember 28, 2018
The Salesforce architect exams are some of the most rewarding and interesting
exams to get. I really enjoy them because they offer a rare chance to dive very
deep into a specific area of the platform. These can expand your capabilities
within Salesforce, and provide you valuable understanding as you progress your
career towards Technical Architect. This is the study guide for the Identity and
Access Management Designer certification exam.
Each of these exams has a study guide (like all other certifications), as well
as a resource guide which has linked articles, Trailhead modules, documentation
and more. To get the most out of those guides, I have written down some
important areas to study and understand. If you understand the concepts below,
you’ll do well on your exam.
Identity and Access Management Designer
The Salesforce Identity and Access Management Designer exam focuses on your
understanding of how access is controlled using external authentication
providers, as well as using Salesforce as the authentication provider. You need
to know how the systems talk to each other, the different ways authentication
can be passed, and how to manage the security of your org(s).
For me, this was the hardest of all of the architect exams. This test deals with
a lot of non-Salesforce principles and practices. If you have spent time working
with authentication and security in your current or previous roles, it may not
be as difficult. I had to take this test a few times, as well as spend a good
amount of time learning about concepts outside of my normal job
responsibilities.
Single Sign-On Salesforce uses the OAuth protocol to safely access information without
passing login credentials. This article speaks about configuring SSO, and this
one speaks about best practices. It is important to review those best practice
considerations.
Active Directory – Salesforce Identity Connect It is important to understand Identity Connect and the relationship Active
Directory has in the modern enterprise landscape. Mapping requirements is a key
part of this process.
Identity Provider vs. Service Provider Given an authentication scenario, you will be asked to determine which
system is the identity provider, and which system is the service provider. The
key to these questions is determining the platform that ultimately authenticates
the users credentials.
Two Factor Authentication Know what options are available for 2FA natively from Salesforce, as well as
the AppExchange. Also understand when you would recommend a 2FA step to an
organization.
JIT Provisioning Know what just in time provisioning is, and for what use case(s) it may be
appropriate.
Canvas Apps and SAML SSO Understanding how SAML SSO can authenticate into your canvas apps.
Multi-Org Solutions When working with multiple orgs, understand the SSO capabilities and
limitations.
Session Security What tokens exist within different authentications scenarios? How is
security handled in these scenarios?
Question: 1 Universal Containers (UC) wants to build a few applications that leverage
the Salesforce REST API. UC
has asked its Architect to describe how the API calls will be authenticated to a
specific user. Which
two mechanisms can the Architect provide? Choose 2 Answers
A. Authentication Token
B. Session ID
C. Refresh Token
D. Access Token
Answer: AD
Question: 2 Universal Containers (UC) has implemented SSO according to the diagram
below. uses SAML while
Salesforce Org 1 uses OAuth 2.0. Users usually start their day by first
attempting to log into Salesforce
Org 2 and then later in the day, they will log into either the Financial System
or CPQ system
depending upon their job position. Which two systems are acting as Identity
Providers?
A. Financial System
B. Pingfederate
C. Salesforce Org 2
D. Salesforce Org 1
Answer: BD
Question: 3 Universal Containers (UC) built an integration for their employees to post,
view, and vote for ideas in
Salesforce from an internal Company portal. When ideas are posted in Salesforce,
links to the ideas
are created in the company portal pages as part of the integration process. The
Company portal
connects to Salesforce using OAuth. Everything is working fine, except when
users click on links to
existing ideas, they are always taken to the Ideas home page rather than the
specific idea, after
authorization. Which OAuth URL parameter can be used to retain the original
requested page so that
a user can be redirected correctly after OAuth authorization?
A. Redirect_uri
B. State
C. Scope
D. Callback_uri
Answer: A
Question: 4 Universal Containers (UC) is building an integration between Salesforce and
a legacy web
applications using the canvas framework. The security for UC has determined that
a signed request
from Salesforce is not an adequate authentication solution for the Third-Party
app. Which two
options should the Architect consider for authenticating the third-party app
using the canvas
framework? Choose 2 Answers
A. Utilize the SAML Single Sign-on flow to allow the third-party to authenticate
itself against UC's IdP.
B. Utilize Authorization Providers to allow the third-party appliction to
authenticate itself against Salesforce as the Idp.
C. Utilize Canvas OAuth flow to allow the third-party appliction to authenticate
itself against Salesforce as the Idp.
D. Create a registration handler Apex class to allow the third-party appliction
to authenticate itself against Salesforce as the Idp.
The Salesforce architect exams are some of the most rewarding and interesting
exams to get. I really enjoy them because they offer a rare chance to dive very
deep into a specific area of the platform. These can expand your capabilities
within Salesforce, and provide you valuable understanding as you progress your
career towards Technical Architect. This is the study guide for the Integration
Architecture Designer certification exam.
Each of these exams has a study guide (like all other certifications), as well
as a resource guide which has linked articles, Trailhead modules, documentation
and more. To get the most out of those guides, I have written down some
important areas to study and understand. If you understand the concepts below,
you’ll do well on your exam.
Integration Architecture Designer
The Salesforce Integration Architecture Designer exam focuses on your
understanding of the architectural decisions necessary to facilitate
integrations with external systems, options available for integration, and key
considerations for developing integrations. This was one of my favorite exams
because I was able to learn a lot of new concepts, all of which I have found
very applicable. Understanding those items has made me a better consultant.
Key Topics
Integration Architecture Patterns What patterns are available, and why would you recommend one over another?
This PDF references the five main patterns we see in Salesforce, as well as the
benefits and considerations to each. In the exam, you will be presented with
sample scenarios, and you will be asked to recommend a pattern based on the
requirements.
APIs Salesforce provides several APIs, you will need to know which one to
recommend given a situation. Also, you need to understand the limitations and
considerations around them (record limits, call limits, timeouts, etc.). There
are learning modules on each type:
Web Service API
REST-Based APIs
Bulk API
Mashups and Composite Apps When a full integration is not recommended, you may want a mashup or
composite app. Understand the limitations of this option, and when you would
recommend it to an organization.
WSDL Files There are two types of WSDL available. Learn which is preferred given a
situation.
Salesforce-to-Salesforce When two Salesforce orgs will be sharing data, you may recommend
Salesforce-to-Salesforce. Make sure you understand what is required to use this,
and key considerations behind the recommendation.
Hands-On Work Understanding the concepts is important, but this certification is difficult
to get without some good study combined with hands-on experience. The Trailhead
superbadge around integration is a great place to start.
Question: 1 Universal Containers has decided that they will be using the bulk API to
migrate the existing data into
Salesforce as they will be importing a total of 80 million records.
While planning for the data migration, what techniques should the Architect
recommend to make sure the load go according to schedule?
Choose 2 answers
A. Pre-process data that the triggers and workflows can be deactivated.
B. Perform a test load using a full Sandbox prior to the Production load.
C. Perform loads over a weekend server resource availability.
D. Leverage several workstations, loading different objects simultaneously.
Answer: A, B
Question: 2 Universal containers are building an integration between Salesforce and
their data warehouse. The
architect has the following requirements
1. Salesforce users need the ability to CRUD (create,read,update and delete)
data from their data warehouse without leaving the Salesforce user interface
2.The integration to the data warehouse should maintain the same look and feel
as the existing Salesforce user interface
3.The use of custom development Should be minimized
Which two solutions should the architect consider?
Choose two options
A. Utilizelightning connect with custom ApexAdapter to provided CRUD access to
the data warehouse
B. Utilize a canvas application to render the data warehouse data from within
Salesforce
C. Utilize a visual force page from 3rd party JavaScript library that will
provide CRUD capabilities to the data warehouse.
D. Utilize a 3rd party tool from the App-Exchange that will provide CRUD
capabilities between the data warehouse and salesforce
Answer: A, B
Question: 3 Universal containers decided to use Salesforce sales cloud for their sales
processes won
Opportunities must be sent to external ERP system for order fulfillment. All the
line items must also
be sent along with Opportunities. The ERP system supports only SOAP- based
messages for receiving orders
What limitation of outbound messages might present a problem in this scenario?
A. Outbound messaging does not support multiple objects
B. Outbound messaging does not support SOAP
C. Outbound messaging cannot be made secure
D. Outbound messaging does not offer any reliability.
Answer: A
Question: 4 Universal containers(UC) leverages the standard opportunity and opportunity
product objects to
manage their orders in Salesforce. When a deal is closed, all opportunity
information, including
products and billing contacts, must be send to their ERP application for order
fulfillment. As UC has
an "express shipping" guarantee, leadership would like order information sent to
ERP as quickly as
possible after the deal is closed?
How should an Architect fulfill this requirement?
A. Write a nightly batch job to send customer information to ERP.
B. Write a visualforce page to send order information to ERP.
C. Write an opportunity trigger to send order information to ERP.
D. Write an outbound message to send order information to ERP.
Answer: C
Question: 5 Universal containers has a simple co -premise web app that is
unauthenticated.
What capability should an integration Architect recommend to make the app
accessible from within Salesforce?
A. Apex callout
B. Visualforce
C. Custom Web tab
D. Lightning connect
1. Overview Huawei follows the "platform + ecosystem" development strategy, which has
set up a complete certification system consisting of three categories for
infrastructure technicians, developers, industry users: ICT infrastructure
certification, ICT developer certification, and ICT vertical certification, and
provides three levels of technical certifications: Associate, Professional and
Expert.
Huawei Certification covers all ICT technical fields and opens a new direction
of career certification. Leveraging this certification program, Huawei is
committed to developing new ICT professionals with sufficient practical skills,
innovation capabilities in converged areas, and dynamic growth over a long term.
HCNP-Access V2.0 is an ICT convergence certification, is positioned to construct
capabilities of access network professional engineers and validate the knowledge
and skills required to construct and manage access networks.
The content of HCNP-Access V2.0 is closer to the existing technology than V1.0.
The old knowledge modules such as UA5000 and MA5600 have been deleted, and the
introduction of 10G PON principles, Vectoring & G.fast principles, security
features, networking protection, QoS features, and the eSight triple play
service configuration are also added. The content includes but is not limited
to: 10G PON principles, Vectoring & G.fast Principles, multicast Basics, VoIP
principle in-depth (H.248 protocol introduction, SIP protocol in-depth),
security features, networking protection, QOS features, troubleshooting, access
network planning and design, eSight Triple Play service configuration, U2000
Triple Play service configuration, and so on.
With engineers who are HCNP-Access V2.0 certified, enterprises have the ability
to complete the design, commissioning and maintenance of access networks.
2. Product Introduction HCNP-Access V2.0 includes items as listed below.
HCNP-Access V2.0 Training Outline
HCNP-Access V2.0 Exam Outline
HCNP-Access V2.0 Training Timetable
HCNP-Access V2.0 Training Materials
HCNP-Access V2.0 Lab Guide
HCNP-Access V2.0 Equipment List
3. Training Description
3.1Training Materials Change
Change in V2.0 Compared with V1.0 Content percentage
Newly Added 10G PON Principles，Vectoring & G.fast Principles, The Security Principles
and Configuration, The Networking Protection Principles and Configuration, The
QoS Principles and Configuration, and The eSight Triple Play Service
Configuration.
30% Deleted MA5600 Hardware Introduction and System Principles, MA5600 BTV Service
Configuration, UA5000 System Overview and Hardware (high density), UA5000 Fault
Handling (high density), U2000 Access Domain MSAN VoIP Service Configuration,
FTTX GPON Equipment Deep, Access Network Service and Data Migration Service
Delivery Guidance, xDSL Principles and Applications.
30% Optimized Multicast Basics, VoIP principle in-depth, Troubleshooting, Access Network
Planning and Design, and U2000 Triple Play Service Configuration.
40% 3.2Lab Guide Change in V2.0 Compared with V1.0
Vectoring & G.fast Configuration Lab Guide, The Security Function Lab Guide, The
Network Protection Lab Guide, The QOS Feature Lab Guide, and The eSight Triple
Play Service Configuration Lab Guide.
SmartAX MA5600 Lab Guide, MSAN UA5000 Lab Guide - ADSL Service Volume, MSAN
UA5000 Lab Guide - Voice Service Volume.
GPON Multicast Service Configuration Lab Guide, GPON VoIP Service Configuration
Lab Guide, and U2000 Triple Play Service Configuration Lab Guide.
3.3Training Duration
The HCNP-Access V2.0 training duration is 10 working days.
3.4Lab Environment
For detailed equipment models and lab experiments, please refer to HCNP-Access
V2.0 Equipment List and HCNP-Access V2.0 Lab Guide.
3.5HALP/HAINA Resources
HCNP-Access V2.0
Description HALP/HAINA Enabling
HALP/HAINA can participate HQ centralized training or self-taught with the
Huawei HCNP-Access e-Learning course (will be available in December, 2018).
HALP/HAINA Certification
Need pass through written, lab and an oral quiz exam, then apply for HCSI
certification from Huawei.
4. Exam Availability After the HCNP-Access V2.0 officially released. The written qualification
exam will be available at Pearson VUE test center on November 30, 2018. The exam
includes three types of questions, single choice questions, multiple choice
questions and judgment questions. The Pearson VUE website link is: http://www.pearsonvue.com/huawei
Obtaining the HCNP-Access V2.0 certification requires that you must first pass
the HCNA-Access certification.
HCNP-Access V2.0
5. Release Area HCNP-Access V2.0 certification has been released globally to support channel
and internal engineers, as well as graduates and external engineers wishing to
obtain primary certification and support access network construction with Huawei
Access equipment.
6. Product Availability All related materials can be found within the Enterprise BG (EBG) Training
and Certification Department Server. For those wishing to obtain these course
materials, please contact the assigned contact person to request for access
permission.
HALP Instructors
HAINA Instructors
Question: 1 (single) When the MA5680T traffic is scheduled, which of the following
traffic will be marked as red?
A. Traffic below CIR
B. Traffic above CIR but below PIR
C. Traffic above PIR
D. Traffic above CBS
Answer: C
Question: 2 (single) Is the following description correct?
Under IGMP snooping, two users on the OLT broadcast the same program, and the
OLT sends two join messages to the multicast router.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question: 3 Single) What is the command to support local loopback on the MA5600 ADSL
port?
A. Loopback
B. loop-detect
C. atm-ping
D. ring check
Answer: A
Question: 4 (single) After installing the sybase patch, which of the following commands
can display the version information of the sybase patch that has been installed?
A. 1>select @@version2>go
B. 1>select @@patch2>go
C. 1>version_help2>go
D. 1>ver_help2>go
Answer: A
Question: 5 (single) Is the following description correct?
The minimum activation rate (Minimum transmission rate) in the ADSL/ADSL2+
parameter indicates
the minimum activation rate that must be reached in this direction after the
line is activated. If the
setting is too large, the modem may not be activated normally.
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1. HCIE-Storage V1.5 Certification Exam Huawei network storage certification exam item is shown in the following
table. This article introduces the HCIE-Storage V1.5 exam outline.
2. HCIE-Storage V1.5 Exam Outline
2.1 Exam Content
HCIE-Storage V1.5 exams contain Huawei OceanStor Converged storage systems, Big
Data storage system, Storage Solutions (Backup and Disaster Recovery), Data
Migration and integrations with virtualization and database applications.
2.2 Key Points
1) OceanStor Converged Storage 1.1 Summary of OceanStor Converged Storage Features:
1.1.1 Smart Features
1.1.2 Hyper Features
1.2 OceanStor Converged Storage Performance Tuning
1.2.1 Performance configurations and guidelines
1.2.2 Performance Monitoring
1.3 Troubleshooting OceanStor Converged Storage
1.3.1 Troubleshooting introduction: concepts and foundation
1.3.2 Troubleshooting tools
1.3.3 Troubleshooting Performance Issues
2) Big Data Storage 2.1 Big Data Storage Technologies
2.1.1 OceanStor 9000 architecture
2.1.2 OceanStor 9000 hardware
2.1.3 OceanStor 9000 DFS
2.1.4 OceanStor 9000 fuctions: InfoProtector, Global Cache, DataScrub, NFS/CIFS/FTP
File Sharing, Performance Improvement
2.2 FAQs About Advanced Features of Big Data Storage systems
2.2.1 Basic sharing
2.2.2 InfoEqualizer
2.2.3 InfoTier
2.2.4 InfoStamper
2.2.5 InfoReplicator
2.3 OceanStor 9000 Planning and Design
2.3.1 Product Planning and Design
2.3.2 Service Research and Requirement Analysis
2.3.3 Network and Capacity Planning
2.3.4 Configuration Planning of Basic Features and Value-added Features
3) Storage Solution 3.1 OceanStor backup solution technologies and networking
3.2 OceanStor backup solution planning and design
3.3 OceanStor backup solution installation and configuration
3.4 OceanStor backup solution maintenance and troubleshooting
3.5 OceanStor BCManager architecture, functions and scenarios
3.6 Disaster Recovery technologies, networking
3.7 Active-Passive Disaster Recovery plan, design and
deployment(HyperReplication, BCManager)
3.8 Active-Active Disaster Recovery plan, design and deployment(HyperMetro)
3.9 Planning and Design
4) Data Migration 4.1 OceanStor Data Migration Solution Overview
4.2 OceanStor Data Migration Solution Technologies
4.3 Data Migration Solution Process
4.4 Data Migration Solution Plan, Design and Implementation Procedure
4.5 Data Migration Solution with SmartMigration, HyperCopy
5) Database 5.1 Working Principle of an Oracle Database
5.2 Components and Installation of an Oracle Database
5.3 Basic Operations Related to an Oracle Database
5.4 Key Parameters and Best Practices
5.5 Working Principle of an SQL Server Database
5.6 Components and Installation of an SQL Server Database
5.7 Basic Operations Related to an SQL Server Database
5.8 Key Parameters and Best Practices
Question: 1
A hospital bought a Huawei OceanStor 9000V100R001C30 storage device for storing
business data.
According to the relevant laws and regulations, which of the following
descriptions of data loss
prevention is wrong?:
A. The engineer has set the WORM root directory according to the hospital's
requirements, and all the subdirectories under this directory have the WORM
attribute.
B. During the file protection period, no one can delete the protected file.
C. Protected Documents are Protected for a Period of 70 Years on Huawei
OceanStor 9000 Storage Device.
D. WORM log save root, quota and WORM protection period cannot be set.
Answer: B
Question: 2 Choose the correct statement regarding the N8000 clustered NAS system that
provides file system
sharing services, surface VxFS file system, and roll features.
A. VxFS is a non-log file system that can support more than 2T files.
B. File system snapshot using copy-on-write (copy-on-write technology) and other
files together, share partition or volume storage space.
C. Provide file system-level snapshots, copy.
D. File System Snapshots, Scenarios, Replication, etc. Features are based on
Storage Checkpoint.
Answer: B,C
Question: 3 True or False, In an OceanStor V3 system storage array, all the snapshots of
a LUN occupy no more space than the LUN.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Question: 4 True or False, with a client using the SMB 1.0 / 2.0 / 2.1 / 3.0 protocol to
perform file replication inside a Huawei OceanStor 9000, it does not need to
pass through the client, but can be done directly to the system.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Question: 5 Client1 needs to read file X from a Huawei OceanStor 900 and the node that
responds to the read request is node A.
Based on this, which of the following are correct?
A. If the system has monitored the file X has been cached on Node B, the client
client1 can read the file directly from Node B.
B. If the system monitors that node B has cached file X, then node A can read
the file from node
C. After HUAWEI OceanStor 9000 processes the request for reading the file X from
client1, the system reserves the message on both node A and node B.
D. If the system monitors that node A has cached file X, then node A only caches
the data of file X and does not cache its verification data
NetApp Certified Support Engineer You have proven skills in on-site and remote support, general
troubleshooting and root cause isolation, hardware replacement, documentation,
node configuration, and software and firmware upgrades for NetApp® data storage
systems running ONTAP® operating system in NFS and Windows® (CIFS) multiprotocol
environments.
NCSE logos, badges, and certificates will be granted to those individuals who
successfully pass the NetApp Certified Support Engineer (NS0-193) exam.
Take Your Exam The NS0-193 exam includes 60 test questions, with an allotted time of 1-1/2
hours to complete. In countries where English is not the native language,
candidates for whom English is not their first language will be granted a
30-minute extension to the allotted examination completion time.
Your results will be available in CertCenter two (2) to five (5) business days
after you complete your exam.
The NCSE ONTAP (NS0-193) exam includes the following topics:
ONTAP® Fundamentals Describe aggregate status
Describe how to troubleshoot AutoSupport
Describe clustering in ONTAP
Demonstrate knowledge of the steps required to upgrade a cluster
Describe space usage within ONTAP
Identify Advanced Disk Partitioning (ADP) implementation
Platforms and Storage
Demonstrate how to analyze storage controller issues
Identify HA and cluster interconnect statistics and error counts
Identify how ONTAP uses system memory and NVRAM
Describe replacement considerations for FRUs
Configuration and Troubleshooting
Describe how to troubleshoot SAN components
Demonstrate knowledge of how to troubleshoot NFS
Demonstrate knowledge of how to troubleshoot SMB (CIFS)
Describe how to configure networks
Demonstrate knowledge of how to troubleshoot permissions
Identify how to capture a packet trace
Performance Analysis
Describe common performance bottlenecks
Identify various filesystem scanners
Describe how to collect performance statistics
NetApp® Data Protection and Management Software
Identify OnCommand® Suite products
Describe ONTAP data protection
Describe SnapCenter® or SnapDrive® software
Describe SnapCenter configuration
Question: 1
A customer recently performed an ONTAP upgrade and would like to confirm the
successful completion of the process.
Which three actions would satisfy this requirement? (Choose three.)
A. Execute the version command at the cluster shell.
B. Verify the version from the new AutoSupport that was automatically triggered
after an upgrade.
C. A system Message notification will be shown reboot after a successful
upgrade.
D. Execute the system upgrade-revert show command at the cluster shell.
E. Execute the system upgrade-revert show-task-status command at the cluster
shell.
Answer: A, C, D
Question: 2 You are adding additional node to a single-node cluster.
Which two actions be performed after this upgrade? (Choose two.)
A. Verify that HA is enabled.
B. Verify that epsilon is not assigned.
C. Verify that epsilon is assigned
D. Verify that HA is disabled
Answer: A, C
Question: 3 Using QoS statistics for a group of volume on one node, you notice that most
of the comes from the data layer.
In this scenario, which statement is correct?
A. There is too much indirect traffic from other nodes.
B. QoS processing is increasing CPU usage.
C. The CPU on the node is overhead.
D. High disk use is increasing CPU usage.
Answer: B
Question: 4 A manager wants a volume to have a guaranteed 300 MB/s of read performance.
You explain that
you cannot do this on FAS storage running ONTAP 9.3 backed by 10,000 RPM disks.
What is the reason for this response?
A. Throughput floor apply to only ISCSI access.
B. Throughput floors can only guarantee up to 125 MB/s.
C. Throughput floors required a license
D. Throughput floors required AFF.
Candidates for this exam are functional consultants who analyze business
requirements and translates those requirements into fully realized business
processes and solutions that implement industry best practices. Candidates serve
as a key resource in implementing and configuring applications to meet business
requirements.
Candidates for this exam have a fundamental understanding of accounting
principles and financial operations of businesses, customer service, field
service, manufacturing, retail, and supply chain management concepts.
Candidates for this exam typically specialize in one or more feature sets of
Microsoft Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations, including finance, manufacturing,
and supply chain management. Less
Part of the requirements for: 3 certifications | See details
Related exams: Exam MB-310, Exam MB-320 and Exam MB-330
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the following technical tasks: use
common functionality and implementation tools; configure security, processes,
and options; perform data migration; and validate and support the solution.
Use common functionality and implementation tools (20-25%)
Identify common Microsoft Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations features and
functionality
determine when to use workspaces
identify use cases for mobile workspaces, Power Apps, and Flow
identify and differentiate between the global address book and other address
books
determine when and how to use the Data Expansion Tool
demonstrate Work Items functionality
demonstrate Microsoft Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations navigation techniques
identify Inquiry and Report types available in a default installation
Configure security, processes, and options (45-50%)
Implement security
identify and distinguish between standard Finance and Operations security roles
distinguish between duties, privileges, and permissions
assign users to security roles based on given scenarios
Design and create workflows
identify opportunities for automation and controls based on customer workflows
configure workflow properties and elements
troubleshoot workflows
Configure options
set up and configure legal entities
configure base number sequences
import or create postal data
configure the calendars and date intervals
configure units of measure and conversions
configure posting profiles and definitions
create organization hierarchies
apply purposes and policies
describe and apply user options
Implement Microsoft Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations common features
synchronize Microsoft Office information with Microsoft Dynamics 365 Finance and
Operations
configure email (SMTP/Exchange)
create and maintain email and record templates
set up a Power BI connector
create, export, and import personalizations
set up network printing
Implement business processes for the solution
define use case scenarios
participate in phase-based planning processes and the solution design
design and create workflows
set up batch jobs and alerts
use business process workspace
Perform data migration (15-20%)
Plan a migration strategy
identify common migration scenarios and tools in Microsoft Dynamics 365 Finance
and Operations
determine migration scope
identify relevant data entities and elements based on given scenarios
establish migration strategy processes
Prepare data for migration and migrate data
identify and extract source data
generate field mapping between source and target data structures
support the transition between the existing and migrated systems
perform a test migration and validate output from the process
Validate and support the solution (15-20%)
Implement and validate the solution within Microsoft Dynamics 365 Finance and
Operations
perform user acceptance testing (UAT)
build test scripts to test business functionality
demonstrate the correlation between test scripts and business requirements
monitor validation test progress and make ad hoc changes during validation
testing to correct identified issues
Support Application Lifecycle Management (ALM) by using LCS
perform a solution gap analysis
use LCS tools to identify, report, and resolve issues Question: 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same
scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some
question sets might
have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct
solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to
it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You are configuring a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations environment.
You must set up Microsoft Excel data exports.
You need to verify that the solution will result in a successful export of data
to Excel.
Solution: Use Open in Excel to open an entity form that does not share the same
root data source by
implementing the ExportToExcellGeneratedCustomExport interface.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Question: 2 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same
scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some
question sets might
have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct
solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to
it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You are configuring a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations environment.
You must set up Microsoft Excel data exports.
You need to verify that the solution will result in a successful export of data
to Excel.
Solution: Use Workbook Designer to build an editable custom export of customer
data that includes
only postal code, city, and state.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A
Question: 3 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same
scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some
question sets might
have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct
solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to
it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You are configuring a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations environment.
You must set up Microsoft Excel data exports.
You need to verify that the solution will result in a successful export of data
to Excel.
Solution: Use OAuth authentication.
Does the solution meet the goal?
TEST DETAILS Required exam XK0-004
Number of questions Maximum of 90
Type of questions Multiple choice and performance-based
Length of test 90 minutes
Recommended experience 9 – 12 months of hands-on experience configuring,
monitoring, and supporting servers running the Linux OS
Passing score 720 (on a scale of 100–900)
EXAM OBJECTIVES (DOMAINS)
lists the domains measured by this examination and the extent to which they are
represented:
CompTIA Linux+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 5.0 (Exam Number: XK0-004)
DOMAIN PERCENTAGE OF EXAMINATION
1.0 Hardware and System Configuration 21%
2.0 Systems Operation and Maintenance 26%
3.0 Security 19%
4.0 Linux Troubleshooting and Diagnostics 20%
5.0 Automation and Scripting 14%
Total 100%
CompTIA Linux+ validates the competencies required of an early career system
administrator supporting Linux systems.
The new CompTIA Linux+ is for the IT pro who will use Linux to manage everything
from cars and smartphones to servers and supercomputers, as a vast number of
enterprises use Linux in cloud, cybersecurity, mobile and web administration
applications.
In the new CompTIA Linux+, candidates are only required to pass one exam for
certification. However, the new certification is no longer eligible for the LPI
2-for-1 offer.
CompTIA Linux+ is the only job-focused Linux certification covering the latest
foundational skills demanded by hiring managers.
Unlike other certifications, the new exam includes performance-based and
multiple-choice questions to identify the employees who can do the job.
The exam covers tasks associated with all major distributions of Linux, setting
the foundation for advanced vendor/distro-specific knowledge.
CompTIA Linux+ Power by LPI will be available through October 1, 2019. CompTIA
Linux+ covers common tasks in major distributions of Linux, including the Linux
command line, basic maintenance, installing and configuring workstations, and
networking.
Candidates are encouraged to use this document to help prepare for CompTIA
Linux+ XK0-004.
CompTIA Linux+ measures the necessary skills of an IT professional with hands-on
experience configuring, monitoring, and supporting servers running the Linux
operating system. Successful
candidates will have the knowledge required to configure, manage, operate, and
troubleshoot a Linux environment by using security best practices, scripting,
and automation.
These content examples are meant to clarify the test objectives and should not
be construed as a comprehensive listing of all the content of this examination.
EXAM DEVELOPMENT
CompTIA exams result from subject matter expert workshops and industry-wide
survey results regarding the skills and knowledge required of an IT
professional.
CompTIA AUTHORIZED MATERIALS USE POLICY CompTIA Certifications, LLC is not
affiliated with and does not authorize, endorse or condone utilizing any content
provided by unauthorized third-party training sites (aka “brain dumps”).
Individuals who utilize such materials in preparation for any CompTIA
examination will have their certifications revoked and be suspended from future
testing in accordance with the CompTIA Candidate Agreement. In an effort to more
clearly communicate CompTIA’s exam policies on use of unauthorized study
materials, CompTIA directs
all certification candidates to the CompTIA Certification Exam Policies. Please
review all CompTIA policies before beginning the study process for any CompTIA
exam. Candidates will be required to abide by the CompTIA Candidate Agreement.
If a candidate has a question as to whether study materials are considered
unauthorized (aka “brain dumps”), he/she should contact CompTIA at examsecurity@comptia.org
to confirm.
PLEASE NOTE The lists of examples provided in bulleted format are not exhaustive lists.
Other examples of technologies, processes, or tasks pertaining to each objective
may also be included on the exam although not listed or covered in this
objectives document. CompTIA is constantly reviewing the content of our exams
and updating test questions to be sure our exams are current and the security of
the questions is protected. When necessary, we will publish updated exams based
on testing exam objectives. Please know that all related exam preparation
materials will still be valid.
Question: 1 Which of the following would be the BEST solution for a systems
administrator to access the graphical user environment of a Linux machine
remotely?
A. VNC
B. KDE
C. X11
D. RPC
Answer: A
Question: 2 A technical support engineer receives a ticket from a user who is trying to
create a 1KB file in the
/tmp directory and is getting the following error No space left on device. The
support engineer
checks the /tmp directory, and it has 20GB of free space.
Which of the following BEST describes a possible cause for this error?
A. The /tmp directory is not mounted.
B. The filesystem is formatted with a 4MB block size.
C. the filesystem ran out of inodes.
D. The /tmp directory has been set with an immutable attribute.
Answer: C
Question: 3 Which of the following is the BEST reason for not storing database files in
the /var directory?
A. The /var filesystem is not fast enough for database files.
B. The number of files in /var is limited by the available inodes.
C. Files in /var do not have strict file permissions.
D. If log files fill up /var, it might corrupt the database.
Exam Description DevNet Associate Exam v1.0 (DEVASC 200-901) is a 120-minute exam associated
with the DevNet Associate - Developer Certification. This exam tests a
candidate's knowledge of software development and design including understanding
and using APIs, Cisco platforms and development, application development and
security, and infrastructure and automation. The course, Developing Applications
and Automating Workflows using Cisco Core Platforms, helps candidates to prepare
for this exam.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be
included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any
specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and
for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without
notice.
1.0 Software Development and Design 15% 1.1 Compare data formats (XML, JSON, and YAML)
1.2 Describe parsing of common data format (XML, JSON, and YAML) to Python data
structures
1.3 Describe the concepts of test-driven development
1.4 Compare software development methods (agile, lean, and waterfall)
1.5 Explain the benefits of organizing code into methods / functions, classes,
and modules
1.6 Identify the advantages of common design patterns (MVC and Observer)
1.7 Explain the advantages of version control
1.8 Utilize common version control operations with Git
1.8.a Clone
1.8.b Add/remove
1.8.c Commit
1.8.d Push / pull
1.8.e Branch
1.8.f Merge and handling conflicts
1.8.g diff
2.0 Understanding and Using APIs 20% 2.1 Construct a REST API request to accomplish a task given API
documentation
2.2 Describe common usage patterns related to webhooks
2.3 Identify the constraints when consuming APIs
2.4 Explain common HTTP response codes associated with REST APIs
2.5 Troubleshoot a problem given the HTTP response code, request and API
documentation
2.6 Identify the parts of an HTTP response (response code, headers, body)
2.7 Utilize common API authentication mechanisms: basic, custom token, and API
keys
2.8 Compare common API styles (REST, RPC, synchronous, and asynchronous)
2.9 Construct a Python script that calls a REST API using the requests library
3.0 Cisco Platforms and Development 15% 3.1 Construct a Python script that uses a Cisco SDK given SDK documentation
3.2 Describe the capabilities of Cisco network management platforms and APIs (Meraki,
Cisco DNA Center, ACI, Cisco SD-WAN, and NSO)
3.3 Describe the capabilities of Cisco compute management platforms and APIs (UCS
Manager, UCS Director, and Intersight)
3.4 Describe the capabilities of Cisco collaboration platforms and APIs (Webex
Teams, Webex devices, Cisco Unified Communication Manager including AXL and UDS
interfaces, and Finesse)
3.5 Describe the capabilities of Cisco security platforms and APIs (Firepower,
Umbrella, AMP, ISE, and ThreatGrid)
3.6 Describe the device level APIs and dynamic interfaces for IOS XE and NX-OS
3.7 Identify the appropriate DevNet resource for a given scenario (Sandbox, Code
Exchange, support, forums, Learning Labs, and API documentation)
3.8 Apply concepts of model driven programmability (YANG, RESTCONF, and NETCONF)
in a Cisco environment
3.9 Construct code to perform a specific operation based on a set of
requirements and given API reference documentation such as these:
3.9.a Obtain a list of network devices by using Meraki, Cisco DNA Center, ACI,
Cisco SD-WAN, or NSO
3.9.b Manage spaces, participants, and messages in Webex Teams
3.9.c Obtain a list of clients / hosts seen on a network using Meraki or Cisco
DNA Center
4.0 Application Deployment and Security 15% 4.1 Describe benefits of edge computing
4.2 Identify attributes of different application deployment models (private
cloud, public cloud, hybrid cloud, and edge)
4.3 Identify the attributes of these application deployment types
4.3.a Virtual machines
4.3.b Bare metal
4.3.c Containers
4.4 Describe components for a CI/CD pipeline in application deployments
4.5 Construct a Python unit test
4.6 Interpret contents of a Dockerfile
4.7 Utilize Docker images in local developer environment
4.8 Identify application security issues related to secret protection,
encryption (storage and transport), and data handling
4.9 Explain how firewall, DNS, load balancers, and reverse proxy in application
deployment
4.10 Describe top OWASP threats (such as XSS, SQL injections, and CSRF)
4.11 Utilize Bash commands (file management, directory navigation, and
environmental variables)
4.12 Identify the principles of DevOps practices
5.0 Infrastructure and Automation 20% 5.1 Describe the value of model driven programmability for infrastructure
automation
5.2 Compare controller-level to device-level management
5.3 Describe the use and roles of network simulation and test tools (such as
VIRL and pyATS)
5.4 Describe the components and benefits of CI/CD pipeline in infrastructure
automation
5.5 Describe principles of infrastructure as code
5.6 Describe the capabilities of automation tools such as Ansible, Puppet, Chef,
and Cisco NSO
5.7 Identify the workflow being automated by a Python script that uses Cisco
APIs including ACI, Meraki, Cisco DNA Center, or RESTCONF
5.8 Identify the workflow being automated by an Ansible playbook (management
packages, user management related to services, basic service configuration, and
start/stop)
5.9 Identify the workflow being automated by a bash script (such as file
management, app install, user management, directory navigation)
5.10 Interpret the results of a RESTCONF or NETCONF query
5.11 Interpret basic YANG models
5.12 Interpret a unified diff
5.13 Describe the principles and benefits of a code review process
5.14 Interpret sequence diagram that includes API calls
6.0 Network Fundamentals 15% 6.1 Describe the purpose and usage of MAC addresses and VLANs
6.2 Describe the purpose and usage of IP addresses, routes, subnet mask /
prefix, and gateways
6.3 Describe the function of common networking components (such as switches,
routers, firewalls, and load balancers)
6.4 Interpret a basic network topology diagram with elements such as switches,
routers, firewalls, load balancers, and port values
6.5 Describe the function of management, data, and control planes in a network
device
6.6 Describe the functionality of these IP Services: DHCP, DNS, NAT, SNMP, NTP
6.7 Recognize common protocol port values (such as, SSH, Telnet, HTTP, HTTPS,
and NETCONF)
6.8 Identify cause of application connectivity issues (NAT problem, Transport
Port blocked, proxy, and VPN)
6.9 Explain the impacts of network constraints on applications Click here to
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Number of questions: 60
Number of questions to pass: 36
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live
This exam consists of 5 sections described below.
Gather Customer Requirements 27% Describe a customer's hardware and software environment.
Describe customer operational contraints, including power, cooling, personnel,
knowledge level, service level requirements.
Identify disaster recovery and high availability requirements.
Identify performance requirements, including throughput and latency.
Identify the customer's capacity and growth requirements.
Describe the process to qualify a customer's expectations, including the
decision making process and the business requirement(s).
Determine the justification for a system acquisition.
Describe a conceptual level understanding of existing systems environments and
new workloads.
Value Proposition 23% Identify the benefits of IBM solutions.
Identify the difference in cost, performance, and reliability of IBM storage
solutions.
Identify application and OS integration.
Given a scenario, explain investment protection and TCO of a solution.
IBM Spectrum Family Software 22% Compare IBM management tools with competitive management tools and
techniques to identify IBM strengths.
Describe integration with open software standards.
Describe Cloud-enabled solutions.
Identify how IBM storage software and products help clients solve data
management issues through Smarter Storage and application efficiency.
Describe the use-case of IBM Spectrum Family software.
IBM New Workloads Solutions 13% Describe the benefits and efficiency in the IBM solutions compared to
competitors.
Identify potential solutions for the customer.
Using Sales Tools and Resources in Support of Solutions 15% Identify appropriate resources within IBM or through the business partner
channel to develop and close business.
Identify the Technical and Delivery Assessment (TDA) and Solution Assurance
Product Review (SAPR) responsibilities.
Status: Live The New Workloads Sales Specialist identifies opportunities for business and
generates and qualifies demand using a consultative approach. This specialist
effectively determines and uses available tools and resources to define and sell
storage solutions that meet customer requirements. This specialist has a broad
knowledge of the features, functions and benefits of IBM storage solutions, and
a high-level understanding of competitive offerings. Successful candidates will
apply their knowledge of the IBM storage portfolio to the customer's environment
to solve business problems.
The IBM storage technologies and solutions included in this exam are:
IBM software defined storage concepts including IBM Spectrum Suite
IBM Flash Storage Family
IBM All-Flash concepts and application acceleration
IBM FlashSystem A9000 and grid scale cloud concepts
New workload concepts
IBM Spectrum Family (IBM SAN Volume Controller; IBM Storwize family and
virtualized storage concepts, IBM Spectrum Control, IBM Spectrum Protect/Plus,
IBM Spectrum Archive, IBM Spectrum Virtualize, IBM Spectrum Accelerate, IBM
Spectrum Scale, IBM Spectrum NAS and IBM Spectrum Connect)
Cloud Object Storage
Storage cloud and hybrid cloud concepts
General knowledge of IBM DS8000 family, deduplication; SAN technologies; tape
solutions (TS7700, TS4300, TS4500); tape technologies (LTO/LTFS); IBM VersaStack
and converged infrastructure is also recommended.
This specialist can perform the following tasks without assistance:
Determine basic product positioning across the IBM storage portfolio
Know where to look for IBM marketing and sales initiatives
Gather customer requirements
Identify and engage correct resources, including technical support, customer
demonstration facilities and tools
Possess a general knowledge of the competitive landscape for storage products
Understand TCO/ROI fundamentals
Articulate features/benefits/fit of IBM storage solutions to solve customer
problems
Identify warranty, installation and support options
Understand the Solutions Assurance/Technical and Delivery Assessment (TDA)
process
Find training and sales support materials
Articulate hybrid cloud and analytics basics
This specialist can perform the following tasks with assistance: Drill down into solution specifics
Articulate and present the solution to the customer
Mitigate competitors
Develop the solution
Have an awareness of the purpose and general capabilities of tools
Define IBM storage solutions relative to private and hybrid cloud
implementations
Understand IBM storage solutions from a new workload perspective, with regard to
disaster recovery solutions, cloud integration, etc.
This specialist should be familiar with the following resources: eConfig
Competitive sales tools such as COMP database and CompeteCenter
TCOnow!
IBM Client Experience Centers
IBM PartnerWorld
IBM sales manuals
IBM sales playbook
Storage and SDI Essentials
Techdocs
Arxview
System Storage Interoperability Center (SSIC)
IBM SmartSeller 2.0
Batch Magic, Disk Magic and Capacity Magic
VSI (third-party vendor IBM uses to run assessment on data storage)
Butterfly
Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Minimum 12 months practical, storage related experience selling in the large
scale storage environment and three months selling IBM storage solutions.
QUESTION: 1 How does IBM Spectrum Copy Data Management simplify copy data management?
A. By enabling automation and orchestration of snapshots
B. By creating daily backups on tape
C. By activating snapshot features in each storage system
D. By creating user-profiles to automate copy processes
Answer: A
QUESTION: 2 An IBM SVC customer is migrating to use data reduction pools. They want to
add data reduction
capabilities to grow effective capacity and make existing storage more
efficient.
What is required to add the capabilities and minimize TCO?
A. Compression licenses for the usable capacity being compressed
B. No further licensing required
C. IBM Spectrum Control
D. IBM Spectrum Copy Data Management
Answer: A
QUESTION: 3 What is a key advantage of leasing storage equipment over buying storage
equipment?
A. Leasing ensures business continuity for leased equipment.
B. Leasing is not on the client’s balance sheet.
C. Leasing improves the alignment of project cost with project benefits.
D. Leasing rates automatically reduce over time.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 4 A customer is looking to add copy services to provide disaster recovery
between sites with heterogeneous storage.
Which product should the sales specialist discuss with the customer?
A. IBM Spectrum Control
B. IBM Spectrum Archive
C. IBM Spectrum Virtualize
D. IBM Spectrum Accelerate
Answer: C
QUESTION: 5 Which offering provides file sharing and transparent cloud tiering?
A. IBM Spectrum Virtualize
B. IBM Spectrum Accelerate
C. IBM Cloud Object Storage
D. IBM Spectrum Scale
Answer: D
QUESTION: 6 A customer wants application consistent restore capabilities.
Which software should the sales specialist recommend to this customer?
A. IBM Spectrum Accelerate
B. IBM Spectrum Scale
C. IBM Spectrum Copy Data Management
D. IBM Spectrum Control
