Thursday, January 30, 2020

Data Architecture And Management Designer Salesforce Certified Data Architecture and Management Designer (SU18) Exam

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QUESTION 1
The leadership team at Get Cloudy Consulting has identified a total of ten text fields on the Contact object as critical. The team wants to capture any changes made to these fields, including the following:
• who made the change
• when they made the change
• what is the old value
• what is the new value
Get Cloudy Consulting needs to be able to report on these field data changes within Salesforce for the past 3 months.
Which two approaches will meet this requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Create a workflow to evaluate the rule when a record is created and use field update actions to store previous values for these ten fields in ten new fields.
B. Create a Contact report including these ten fields and Salesforce Id, then schedule the report to run once a day and send email to the admin.
C. Write an Apex trigger on Contact after insert event and after update events and store the old values in another custom object.
D. Turn on field Contact object history tracking for these ten fields, then create reports on contact history.

Correct Answer: C,D

QUESTION 2
Cloud Kicks often uses Data Loader to upsert Contact records into Salesforce to avoid creating duplicate Contacts.
Which is a common error to be aware of when using upsert?

A. Errors with records being updated and inserted in the same CSV file.
B. Errors with using the wrong external Id will cause the load to fail.
C. Errors when a duplicate Contact name is found cause upsert to fail.
D. Errors with duplicate external Id values within the same CSV file.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Ursa Major Solar's legacy system has a quarterly accounts receivable report that compiles data from the following:
- Accounts
- Contacts
- Opportunities
- Orders
- Order Line Items
Which issue will an architect have when implementing this in Salesforce?

A. Custom report types CANNOT contain Opportunity data.
B. Salesforce does NOT support Orders or Order Line Items.
C. Salesforce does NOT allow more than four objects in a single report type.
D. A report CANNOT contain data from Accounts and Contacts.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A company uses Salesforce, a cloud-based ERP system, and an on-premise Order Management System (OMS). This company requires a solution that uses Salesforce as the system of record for Leads and the OMS as the system of record for Account and Contacts.
Additionally, the company wants Accounts and Contacts to be able to maintain their names in each system
(i.e., ""Jane Doe""; in the OMS and ""Jannie Doe""' in Salesforce), but wants to have a consolidated data store
which links referenced records across the systems.
Which suggestion should the Architect provide to the company to meet this goal?

A. Have Salesforce poll the OMS nightly and bring in the desired Accounts and Contacts.
B. Use an integration tool to send OMS Accounts and Contacts to Salesforce.
C. Utilize the Streaming API to send Account and Contact data from Salesforce to the OMS.
D. Use a Master Data Management strategy to reconcile Leads, Accounts, and Contacts.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Get Cloudy Consulting is introducing a data governance program that has a formal, cross-business-unit structure. The company is creating a team that will make decisions on enterprise-wide data governance.
Which two roles are appropriate as members of this team? (Choose two.)

A. Data Domain Stewards
B. Analytics/BI Owners
C. Salesforce Administrators
D. Operational Data Users

Correct Answer: A,B
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Monday, January 20, 2020

C_TADM51702 SAP Certified Technology Associate - System Administration (Oracle DB) with SAP NetWeaver 7.0 EHP2

QUESTION 1
Your customer is configuring a Central User Administration (CUA) in AS ABAP connecting to multiple child
systems. Changes of the attribute "mobile telephone number" in the user master record in one child system
should be transferred to the other relevant child systems.
Which setting for the attribute "mobile telephone number" in parameters for field distribution via transaction
SCUM (Central User Administration) do you use to fulfill this requirement?

A. Global
B. Redistribution
C. Everywhere
D. Local

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You analyze the Oracle database alert log and discover the error message "Unable to extend tablespace".
What can you do to solve this issue? (Choose three)

A. Set at least one data file of the tablespace to "autoextensible" (AUTOEXTEND ON).
B. Add a new data file.
C. Assign a data file to a different tablespace with more free space.
D. Enlarge a data file of the tablespace with a fixed size.
E. Create a new tablespace.

Correct Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION 3
Which of the following activities are executed by JControl? (Choose three)

A. In an AS ABAP+Java (Dual Stack) system: Start the ABAP Dispatcher.
B. Start one or more server processes as JLaunch processes.
C. Synchronize binaries.
D. Start the Java Message service.
E. Connect to the Central Service Instance.

Correct Answer: B,C,E

QUESTION 4
You are running an AS ABAP-based SAP system. You have changed a dynamically switchable profile
parameter in transaction RZ11 (Maintain Profile Parameters). These settings become effective immediately.
You want to make sure that the new settings are still valid after the next restart of your system.
How do you fulfill this requirement?

A. No further steps are necessary in this scenario.
B. Maintain the same profile parameter in transaction RSPFPAR (Display Profile Parameter).
C. Mark check box "Activate in profile" in transaction RZ11.
D. Maintain the same profile parameter in transaction RZ10 (Edit Profiles) and activate the changes.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
An Oracle database instance is running in MOUNT mode.
Which tasks can be performed by a database administrator? (Choose two)

A. Perform a media recovery.
B. Access the Oracle DBA_* views in tablespace SYSTEM.
C. Recreate a missing control file.
D. Change the ARCHIVELOG mode of the database.

Correct Answer: A,D
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Friday, January 17, 2020

4A0-107 Nokia Quality of Service Exam

Exam Name: Nokia Quality of Service
Exam Number: 4A0-107
Credit Towards Certifications: Nokia Service Routing Architect
Mandatory Exam Prerequisites: N/A
Exam Duration: 90 Minutes
Exam Appointment Duration: 135 minutes. This is the exam duration plus a 45 minute tutorial on computer-based examinations.
Number of Questions: 60
Language: English

For a list of candidate exam topics, please refer to the list of course objectives and modules in the course outline. The course overview page and course outline can be found here.

QUESTION 1
The IP ToS field consists of ________ bits, of which ________are used. The _________most significant (first) bits define precedence.

A. 8, 6, 3
B. 8, 8, 6
C. 16, 8, 4
D. 8, 6, 4
E. 24, 16, 8

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following are examples of metrics for QoS?

A. Signal degradation, attenuation, line loss
B. Latency, FIFO, WRED
C. Delay, jitter, packet loss
D. SNR, queue depth, latency
E. Attenuation, dispersion, latency

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What is the 6-bit binary representation of DSCP value AF21?

A. 010011
B. 100010
C. 010001
D. 001100
E. 010010

Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements regarding DSCP bits are TRUE? (Choose three)

A. The three most significant (first) bits define 8 forwarding classes.
B. The three least significant (last) bits of the DSCP specify the drop probability.
C. The full 8 bits of the TOS field are used for DSCP.
D. To convert DSCP to IP precedence, the three most significant (first) bits are matched.
E. DSCP provides for eight drop probabilities.

Answer: A,B,D


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Tuesday, January 14, 2020

H12-224 HCNP-R&S Fast Track (Huawei Certified Network Professional - Routing & Switching) Fast Track Exam

QUESTION 1
Which statements about QinQ are true? (Choose two.)

A. QinQ saves VLANs on the public network.
B. To avoid VLAN conflict, the customer must negotiate with the service provider before modifying the VLANs on its private network.
C. When the service provider upgrades the network, the configurations on the user network do not need to be modified.
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
Which statement about port isolation configuration is false?

A. Port isolation can be used for Layer 2 isolation.
B. In port isolation mode, ports are isolated at Layer 2 but can communicate at Layer 3 by default.
C. Before the port isolation function takes effect on an interface, the port isolation function must be enabled first.
D. The port-isolate enable command can run in the system view.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which statements about MUX VLAN are true? (Choose two.)

A. MUX VLAN contains a principal VLAN and subordinate VLANs. The principal VLAN and subordinate VLANs cannot communicate.
B. MUX VLAN contains a principal VLAN and subordinate VLANs. The subordinate VLANs are classified into subordinate separate VLANs and subordinate group VLANs. The interfaces in the subordinate group VLAN can communicate with each other.
C. The principal VLAN and subordinate VLANs can communicate.
D. The interfaces of different subordinate separate VLANs can communicate with each other, but cannot communicate with the interfaces in the principal VLAN.

Correct Answer: B,C

QUESTION 4
Two switches are directly connected to each other and they are working in full duplex mode. By default, RSTP will consider the link between the switches as point-to-point link.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
On the RSTP network with STP devices, which packets does an RSTP switch use to notify the STP switches of the topology change?

A. RSTP BPDUs with the TC flag
B. STP BPDUs with the TCN flag
C. RSTP BPDUs with the TCA flag
D. STP BPDUs with the TCA flag

Correct Answer: B

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