1Z0-439 Primavera Unifier Cloud Service 2016 Implementation Essentials

Exam Title: Primavera Unifier Cloud Service 2016 Implementation Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-439
Exam Price: $245.00 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple-Choice
Duration: 120 Minutes
Number of Questions: 80
Passing Score: 70%
Validated Against: Exam has been validated against Primavera Unifier release 10.2.

Associated Certification Paths
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Primavera Unifier Cloud Service 2016 Certified Implementation Specialist
Recommended Training

Additional Preparation and Information

A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Administration Overview
Describe administrative roles at each level

Companies
Design and maintain Company Relationships
Setup and maintain Company level Business Processes

Standards and Libraries Management
Create and maintain Templates
Create and maintain Folder Structure templates

Shell Manager
Configure Shell Manager
Create and maintain a Single Shell Instance
Create and maintain Multiple Shell Instances

uDesigner Processes
Import from uDesigner: Business Processes, Attributes, and Shells
Explain configuration issues related to Business Processes, Shell Manager, and Navigation Tabs

Business Process Creation
Create, modify, and maintain Shell Information Business Process
Create, modify, and maintain a Line Item Type Non- Business Process
Create, modify, and maintain a Line Item Type Workflow Business Process
Create, modify, and maintain a Text Type Business Process
Create, modify, and maintain a Document Type Business Process
Define Conditional Routing on a Business Process
Define Sub Workflow on a Business Process
Define Consolidation on a Business Process
Add Integration to a Business Process
Demonstrate the use of Portal Enablement Business Processes
Test a Business Process

Program Management
Define and manage programs
Create and maintain Programs

Export Designs from Unifier
Create and export Design Bundles

License Management
Describe owner company and partner company licenses

User Administration
Describe methods for adding Partner and Sponsor Company Users
Create and maintain Groups
Assign and manage permissions to Groups
Create and maintain User Preference Templates
Administer Users and Groups assignments in Shells

Design and Development Concepts
Map business requirements to Unifier Components

Shells
Design and execute an Update Shell Solution
Create and maintain Shell Templates
Set up Business Processes in Shell Templates
Add Groups in a Shell Template
Embed Stand Alone Templates in Shell Template

Data Structure Setup
Explain module functionality
Describe data definitions and data elements
Enter data definition values manually or via import
Export data definitions/data elements as CSV files

Forms
Demonstrate multiple ways to re-use Forms
Add Formulas to a Form
Create Validation on Upper Forms and Detail Forms
Configure Reset functionality on a Form
Create Document Manager Attributes and Forms
Create Record Statuses

uDesigner Versioning
Use Snapshots for partial restoration

QUESTION: No: 1
Identify two Unifier login fields that you must complete to import a workflow setup from another environment. (Choose two.)

A. Authentication Key
B. Company Short name
C. Author
D. Search for

Answer: A,B

QUESTION: No: 2
Identify one benefit of using Folder Structure templates.

A. to manage or control project documents
B. to assign permissions to documents
C. to store project documents or deliverables
D. consistent document management protocols across projects

Answer: A

QUESTION: No: 3
Identify the term related to the issue of companies that have exceeded the user limits agreed upon by the license plan.

A. Limits
B. Overage
C. License terms
D. Current Usage

Answer: C

QUESTION: No: 4
Generic Cost Code Shells _

A. define the Shell hierarchy
B. define the Cost Breakdown Structure
C. support Cost Manager functionality
D. support configurable modules

Answer: D

QUESTION: No: 5
Identify two objects that cannot be changed once a Business Process has been imported into Unifier production instance. (Choose two.)

A. Logs
B. Detail Forms
C. Upper Forms
D. Record statuses defined as terminal
E. Workflows

Answer: D,E

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1Z0-060 Upgrade to Oracle Database 12c

Exam Number: 1Z0-060
Exam Title: Upgrade to Oracle Database 12c
Associated Certification Paths Oracle Database 12c Administrator Certified Professional(upgrade)
Duration: 120 minutes
Number of Questions: 80
Passing Score: Section 1 = 64%; Section 2 = 65%
Validated Against: This exam has been validated against Oracle Database 12.1.0.1.0.
Format: Multiple Choice

Complete Recommended Training
Oracle Database 12c: New Features for Administrators

Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Certification Exam Prep Seminar: Upgrade to Oracle Database 12c
Exam Prep Seminar Package: Upgrade to Oracle Database 12c: Administrator Certified Professional
Practice Exams: Oracle Authorized practice exam from Kaplan IT Training: 1Z0-060 Upgrade to 12c - New Features of Oracle Database 12c

New Features of Oracle Database 12c

Enterprise Manager and Other Tools
Use EM Express
Use OUI, DBCA for installation and configuration

Basics of Multitenant Container Database (CDB)
Identify the benefits of the multitenant container database
Explain root and multitenant architecture

Configuring and Creating CDBs and PDBs
Create and configure a CDB
Create and configure a PDB
Migrate a non-CDB to a PDB database

Managing CDBs and PDBs
Establish connection to a CDB/PDB
Start up and shut down a CDB/PDB
Change instance parameters for a CDB/PDB

Managing Tablespaces, Common and Local Users, Privileges and Roles
Manage tablespaces in a CDB/PDB
Manage users and privileges for CDB/PDB

Backup, Recovery and Flashback for a CDB/PDB
Perform backup of CDB and PDB
Perform recovery of CDB and PDB
Perform Flashback for a CDB

Information Lifecycle Management and Storage Enhancements
Use ILM features
Perform tracking and automated data placement
Move a data file online

In-Database Archiving and Valid-Time Temporal
Differentiate between ILM and Valid-Time Temporal
Set and use Valid Time Temporal
Use In-Database archiving

Auditing
Enable and configure Unified Audit Data Trail
Create and enable audit policies

Privileges
Use administrative privileges
Create, enable and use privilege analysis

Oracle Data Redaction
Use and manage Oracle Data Redaction policies

RMAN and Flashback Data Archive

Use RMAN enhancements
Implement the new features in Flashback Data Archive

Real-Time Database Operation Monitoring
Implement real-time database operation monitoring

SQL Tuning
Use Adaptive Execution Plans
Use enhanced features of statistics gathering
Use Adaptive SQL Plan Management

Emergency Monitoring, Real-Time ADDM, Compare Period ADDM, and Active Session History (ASH) Analytics
Perform emergency monitoring and real-time ADDM
Generate ADDM Compare Period
Diagnose performance issues using ASH enhancements

Resource Manager and Other Performance Enhancements
Use Resource Manager for a CDB and PDB
Explain Multi-process Multi-threaded Oracle architecture
Use Flash Cache

Index and Table Enhancements
Use Index enhancements
Use Table enhancements
Use Online operation enhancements

ADR and Network Enhancements
Explain ADR enhancements

Oracle Data Pump, SQL*Loader, External Tables and Online Operations Enhancements
Use Oracle Data Pump enhancements
Use SQL*Loader and External table enhancements

Partitioning Enhancements
Explain Partitioning enhancements
Explain Index enhancements for partitioned tables

SQL Enhancements
Use Oracle Database Migration Assistant for Unicode
Use Row limiting clause, and secure file LOBs enhancements
Configure extended datatypes

Key DBA Skills
Core Administration

Explain the fundamentals of DB architecture
Install and configure a database
Configure server and client network for a database
Monitor database alerts
Perform daily administration tasks
Apply and review patches
Back up and recover the database
Troubleshoot network and database issues
Detect and repair data failures with Data Recovery Advisor
Implement Flashback Technology
Load and Unload Data
Miscellaneous
Relocate SYSAUX occupants
Create a default permanent tablespace
Use the Redo Logfile Size Advisor
Use Secure File LOBs
Use Direct NFS

Performance Management
Design the database layout for optimal performance
Monitor performace
Manage memory
Analyze and identify performance issues
Perform real application testing
Use Resource Manager to manage resources
Implement Application Tuning

Storage
Manage database structures
Administer ASM
Manage ASM disks and diskgroups
Manage ASM instance
Manage VLDB
Implement Space Management

Security
Develop and implement a security policy
Configure and manage auditing
Create the password file
Implement column and tablespace encryption

---

QUESTION 1
Your multitenant container (CDB) contains two pluggable databases (PDB), HR_PDB and
ACCOUNTS_PDB, both of which use the CDB tablespace. The temp file is called temp01.tmp.
A user issues a query on a table on one of the PDBs and receives the following error:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01565: error in identifying file ‘/u01/app/oracle/oradata/CDB1/temp01.tmp’
ORA-27037: unable to obtain file status
Identify two ways to rectify the error.

A. Add a new temp file to the temporary tablespace and drop the temp file that that produced the
error.
B. Shut down the database instance, restore the temp01.tmp file from the backup, and then restart
the database.
C. Take the temporary tablespace offline, recover the missing temp file by applying redo logs, and
then bring the temporary tablespace online.
D. Shutdown the database instance, restore and recover the temp file from the backup, and then
open the database with RESETLOGS.
E. Shut down the database instance and then restart the CDB and PDBs.

Answer: C,E

Explanation: * Because temp files cannot be backed up and because no redo is ever generated
for them, RMAN never restores or recovers temp files. RMAN does track the names of temp files,
but only so that it can automatically re-create them when needed.
*If you use RMAN in a Data Guard environment, then RMAN transparently converts primary
control files to standby control files and vice versa. RMAN automatically updates file names for
data files, online redo logs, standby redo logs, and temp files when you issue RESTORE and
RECOVER.

---

QUESTION 2
Examine the following commands for redefining a table with Virtual Private Database (VPD)
policies:



Which two statements are true about redefining the table?

A. All the triggers for the table are disabled without changing any of the column names or column
types in the table.
B. The primary key constraint on the EMPLOYEES table is disabled during redefinition.
C. VPD policies are copied from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.
D. You must copy the VPD policies manually from the original table to the new table during online
redefinition.

Answer: B,C

Explanation: C (not D):CONS_VPD_AUTO
Used to indicate to copy VPD policies automatically
* DBMS_RLS.ADD_POLICY
/The DBMS_RLS package contains the fine-grained access control administrative interface, which
is used to implement Virtual Private Database (VPD).DBMS_RLS is available with the Enterprise
Edition only.
Note:
*CONS_USE_PK and CONS_USE_ROWID are constants used as input to the "options_flag"
parameter in both the START_REDEF_TABLE Procedure and CAN_REDEF_TABLE Procedure.
CONS_USE_ROWID is used to indicate that the redefinition should be done using rowids while
CONS_USE_PK implies that the redefinition should be done using primary keys or pseudoprimary
keys (which are unique keys with all component columns having NOT NULL constraints).
* DBMS_REDEFINITION.START_REDEF_TABLE
To achieve online redefinition, incrementally maintainable local materialized views are used.
These logs keep track of the changes to the master tables and are used by the materialized views
during refresh synchronization.
*START_REDEF_TABLE Procedure
Prior to calling this procedure, you must manually create an empty interim table (in the same
schema as the table to be redefined) with the desired attributes of the post-redefinition table, and
then call this procedure to initiate the redefinition.

---

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true about the use of the procedures listed in the
v$sysaux_occupants.move_procedure column?

A. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data to the SYSAUX
tablespace from its current tablespace.
B. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data from the
SYSAUX tablespace to another tablespace.
C. All the components may be moved into SYSAUX tablespace.
D. All the components may be moved from the SYSAUX tablespace.

Answer: B,D

Explanation: V$SYSAUX_OCCUPANTS displays SYSAUX tablespace occupant information.
MOVE_PROCEDURE:Name of the move procedure; null if not applicable
For example, the tables and indexes that were previously owned by the system user can now be
specified for a SYSAUX tablespace. You can query the v$sysaux_occupants view to find the exact
components stored within the SYSAUX tablespace.

---

QUESTION 4
Which statement is true about Oracle Net Listener?

A. It acts as the listening endpoint for the Oracle database instance for all local and non-local user
connections.
B. A single listener can service only one database instance and multiple remote client
connections.
C. Service registration with the listener is performed by the process monitor (PMON) process of
each database instance.
D. The listener.ora configuration file must be configured with one or more listening protocol
addresses to allow remote users to connect to a database instance.
E. The listener.ora configuration file must be located in the ORACLE_HOME/network/admin
directly.

Answer: C

Explanation: Supported services, that is, the services to which the listener forwards client
requests, can be configured in the listener.ora file or this information can be dynamically registered
with the listener. This dynamic registration feature is called service registration. The registration is
performed by the PMON process—an instance background process—of each database instance
that has the necessary configuration in the database initialization parameter file. Dynamic service
registration does not require any configuration in the listener.ora file.
Incorrect:
Not B:Service registration reduces the need for the SID_LIST_listener_name parameter setting,
which specifies information about the databases served by the listener, in the listener.ora file.
Note:
*Oracle Net Listener is a separate process that runs on the database server computer. It receives
incoming client connection requests and manages the traffic of these requests to the database
server.
*A remote listener is a listener residing on one computer that redirects connections to a database
instance on another computer. Remote listeners are typically used in an Oracle Real Application
Clusters (Oracle RAC) environment. You can configure registration to remote listeners, such as in
the case of Oracle RAC, for dedicated server or shared server environments.

---

QUESTION 5
You are administering a database stored in Automatic Storage Management (ASM). You use
RMAN to back up the database and the MD_BACKUP command to back up the ASM metadata
regularly. You lost an ASM disk group DG1 due to hardware failure.
In which three ways can you re-create the lost disk group and restore the data?

A. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore metadata for an existing disk group by passing
the existing disk group name as an input parameter and use RMAN to restore the data.
B. Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backedup
disk group and data on the disk group.
C. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore the disk group with the changed disk group
specification, failure group specification, name, and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the
data.
D. Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backedup
disk group name and same set of disks and failure group configuration, and use RMAN to
restore the data.
E. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore both the metadata and data for the failed disk
group.
F. Use the MKDG command to add a new disk group DG1 with the same or different specifications
for failure group and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the data.

Answer: C,E,F

Explanation:
Note:
*The md_restore command allows you to restore a disk group from the metadata created by
the md_backup command.
/md_restore Command
Purpose
This command restores a disk group backup using various options that are described in this section.
/In the restore mode md_restore, it re-create the disk group based on the backup file with all user defined
templates with the exact configuration as the backuped disk group. There are several
options when restore the disk group
full - re-create the disk group with the exact configuration
nodg - Restores metadata in an existing disk group provided as an input parameter
newdg - Change the configuration like failure group, disk group name, etc..
*The MD_BACKUP command creates a backup file containing metadata for one or more disk
groups. By default all the mounted disk groups are included in the backup file which is saved in the
current working directory. If the name of the backup file is not specified, ASM names the file
AMBR_BACKUP_INTERMEDIATE_FILE.

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1Z0-518 Oracle E-Business Suite R12.1 Receivables Essentials

Exam Number: 1Z0-518
Exam Title: Oracle E-Business Suite R12.1 Receivables Essentials
Duration: 150 minutes
Number of Questions:  80 for both sections combined
Passing Score: E-business Essentials - 60% Receivables - 60%
Validated Against:  This exam is valid for Oracle E-Business Suite 12 and 12.1.
Format: Multiple Choice

Complete Recommended Training

Complete the training below to prepare for your exam (optional):

R12.x Oracle E-Business Suite Essentials for Implementers and
R12.x Oracle Receivables Management Fundamentals

Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Resources available to partners only
Training Opportunities for Oracle Partner Network Members
Oracle E-Business Suite Essentials Implementation Boot Camp
Oracle E-Business Suite R12.1 Accounts Receivable Implementation Boot Camp
OPN Guided Learning Path: Oracle E-Business Suite Financial Management Certified Implementation Specialist: Receivables
These earlier courses are still valid exam preparation tools but are no longer being scheduled:
Oracle E-Business Suite R12: E-Business Essentials
R12 Oracle Receivables Management Fundamentals

E-BUSINESS ESSENTIALS

Navigating in R12 Oracle Applications
Log in to Oracle Applications
Navigate from Personal Home Page to Applications
Choose a responsibility
Create Favorites and set Preferences
Use Forms and Menus
Enter data using Forms
Search for data using Forms
Access online Help
Run and monitor Reports and Programs
Log out of Oracle Applications

Introduction to Oracle Applications R12
Explain the footprint of R12 E-Business Suite
Describe the benefits of R12 E-Business Suite
Describe R12 E-Business Suite architecture

Shared Entities and Integration
Explain shared entities within R12 E-Business Suite
Describe key integration points and business flows between products in E-Business Suite (EBS)
Identify Key Business Flows and products involved in E-Business Suite (EBS)

Fundamentals of Flexfields
Describe Flexfields and their components
Identify the steps to implement a Flexfield
Define value sets and values
Define Key Flexfields
Define Descriptive Flexfields

Fundamentals of Multi-Org
Define Multiple Organization (Multi-Org)
Describe the types of organizations supported in the Multi-Org model
Explain the entities of Multi-Org
Explain how Multi-Org secures data
Identify key implementation considerations for Multi-Org
Define Multi-Org Access Control
Explain Multi-Org preferences
Explain Enhanced Multiple-Organization Reporting
Explain the concepts of subledger accounting

Fundamentals of Workflow and Alerts
Explain Workflow concepts
Describe the benefits of Workflow

RECEIVABLES
Process Invoices Using AutoInvoice

Describe the AutoInvoice process
Use AutoInvoice
Understand error correction using AutoInvoice Exception Handling

Bill Presentment Architecture
Explain bill presentment architecture processes
Register data sources
Create templates to present bills
Define rules to assign templates to customers
Print BPA transactions

Receipts
Describe the receipt process
Apply receipts using different methods
Create chargebacks, adjustments and claims
Use balancing segments
Apply non-manual receipts
Create receipts utilizing different methods

Period Closing Process
Describe the sub ledger accounting process in Receivables
Define the various actions required to close a period in the Order to Cash flow
Describe the available reports to assist in the closing process
Explain the Create Accounting program and the Revenue Recognition program

Order to Cash Lifecycle Overview
Describe the overall Order to Cash process from Order Entry through Bank Reconciliation
Discuss the key areas in the Order to Cash lifecycle
Describe integration between applications

Manage Parties and Customer Accounts
Define the features that let you enter and maintain party and customer account information
Create profile classes and assign them to customer accounts
Create and maintain party and customer account information
Merge parties and customer accounts
Enable customer account relationships
Define TCA party paying relationships
View party and customer account information
Define setup options

Credit Management
Set up for credit management
Demonstrate credit profile changes
Identify credit management processing
Use workflow and lookups
Review credit management performance
Apply credit hierarchy

Implement Receipts
Enter setup information relating to receipts
Discuss implementation considerations for Receipts

Overview of Oracle Receivables Process
Explain where the Receivables process is positioned within the Order to Cash lifecycle
Describe the overall Receivables process
Explain the key areas in the Receivables process
Identify open interfaces to import data into Receivables

Process Invoices
Describe how the processing of invoices fits into the Receivables process
Enter and complete invoices
Perform other invoice actions
Correct invoices
Print transactions and statements
Use event-based management

Implement Customer Invoicing
Enter setup information related to invoicing
Discuss the major implementation considerations for customer invoicing

Tax Processing
Understand the E-Business Tax and Receivables Tax Process
Define Receivables Setup Steps for Tax
Manage Tax Accounting and Tax Adjustments

---

QUESTION 1
Identify the two benefits of using Multi-Org Access Control. (Choose two.)

A. View asset Information across multiple asset books.
B. Restrict access to users based on their Organization assignments.
C. Submit and view data across different Ledgers using a single responsibility.
D. Enter Payables invoices for different Operating Units using a single responsibility.
E. View Consolidated requisitions across Operating Units using a single responsibility.

Answer: D,E

Explanation:
http://realworldoracleapps.blogspot.com/2009/02/r12-multi-org-access-controlfeatures.
html

---

QUESTION 2
You are Involved In a project to upgrade to Oracle E-Business Suite, Release 12. You need more
Information about the upgrade processes and paths.
Where would you find the upgrade guide for Oracle E-Business Suite?

A. AppsNet
B. Bug Database
C. Technical Forums
D. Metal ink Knowledge Base
E. Oracle Technology Network
F. Customer Knowledge Exchange

Answer: D

---

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true regarding partitioning of data by an application? (Choose two.)

A. General Ledger is partitioned by Ledgers.
B. Accounts Payable is partitioned by Ledgers.
C. Fixed Assets are partitioned by Operating Unit.
D. Accounts Receivable is partitioned by Operating Unit.
E. Order Management is partitioned by Inventory Organization.

Answer: A,D

Explanation:
http://oracleappsuserguide.blogspot.com/2009/06/oracle-r12-business-essentialsfaqs_
10.html

---

QUESTION 4
ABC Corp. has determined its Accounting Key Flexfield structure for the Implementation of Oracle
E-Business Suite Release 12. The Accounting Key Flexfield structure contains five Segments:
Company, Business Unit, Department, Account, and Product.
They have the following requirements:
1) The Department values should be based on the Business Units.
2) They want to produce a quarterly Balance Sheet for each Company.
Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. The Product Value Set is dependent on the Accounts.
B. The Business Unit Value Set is defined as Independent.
C. The Account Segment has a Value Set with no Validation.
D. The Company Segment is qualified as the Balancing Segment.
E. The Department Segment Is qualified as an Intercompany Segment.
F. Cross-validation rules are required to enforce dependency of Departments on the Business
Units.

Answer: B,D,F

Explanation:
http://oracle.anilpassi.com/value-set-basics-in-oracle-apps.html
http://www.geekinterview.com/question_details/15974

---

QUESTION 5
Identify four tasks that you can perform using Oracle Workflow in Oracle E-Business Suite
Release 12, (choose four}

A. Automata business processes,
B. Generate account code combinations,
C. Approve standard business documents,
D. Send notifications using Advanced Queuing,
E. Generate Inventory item numbers using item generator workflow,
F. Integrate with third party business systems that are not on a company network.

Answer: A,B,D,F

Explanation:
http://download.oracle.com/docs/cd/A60725_05/html/comnls/us/oe/oefb1.htm
http://download.oracle.com/docs/cd/B34956_01/current/acrobat/120wfag.pdf

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RH302 Redhat Certified Engineer on Redhat Enterprise Linux 5 (Labs)

Prove your skills and knowledge

An RHCE is capable of RHCSA tasks plus the following:
Configuring static routes, packet filtering, and network address translation
Setting kernel runtime parameters
Configuring an Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI) initiator
Producing and delivering reports on system utilization
Using shell scripting to automate system maintenance tasks
Configuring system logging, including remote logging
Configuring a system to provide networking services, including HTTP/HTTPS, File Transfer Protocol (FTP), network file system (NFS), server message block (SMB), Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), secure shell (SSH) and Network Time Protocol (NTP)

Is this certification right for you?

The following audiences may be interested in earning RHCE:
RHCSAs who wish to earn a more senior-level credential.
Experienced senior system administrators who have not yet certified.
Course participants in Red Hat Training who have completed System Administration I, II, and III, or who have completed the RHCE Rapid Track Course.
Experienced system administrators who require certification for their job or by mandate (e.g., US Department of Defense Directive 8570).

Test your skills and knowledge
Note: There is no requirement that these exams be taken and passed on the same release of Red Hat Enterprise Linux.

EX200 - Red Hat Certified System Administrator (RHCSA) exam
EX300 - Red Hat Certified Engineer (RHCE) exam

Windows system administrators with minimal Linux experience:
Red Hat System Administration I (RH124)
Red Hat System Administration II (RH134)
Red Hat System Administration III (RH254)

Linux or UNIX administrators with 1-3 years of experience:
RHCSA Rapid Track Course (RH199)
Red Hat System Administration III (RH254)

RHCEs who wish to re-certify:

RHCE Certification Lab

61.1. Course Description
RHCE stands apart from many other certification programs in the IT sector because of its emphasis on hands-on, performance-based testing of actual skills in Red Hat Linux installation, configuration, debugging, and setup of key networking services.
61.1.1. Prerequisites
See RH300 course prerequisites. For further information, please refer to the RHCE Exam Prep Guide: www.redhat.com/training/rhce/examprep.html
61.1.2. Content

Section I: Troubleshooting and System Maintenance (2.5 hrs)
Section II: Installation and Configuration (3 hrs.)


QUESTION 2
CORRECT TEXT
Dig Server1.example.com, Resolve to successfully through DNS Where DNS server is
172.24.254.254

Answer and Explanation
#vi etcresolv.conf
nameserver 172.24.254.254
# dig server1.example.com
#host server1.example.com
DNS is the Domain Name System, which maintains a database that can help your computer
translate domain names such as www.redhat.com to IP addresses such as 216.148.218.197. As
no individual DNS server is large enough to keep a database for the entire Internet, they can refer
requests to other DNS servers.
DNS is based on the named daemon, which is built on the BIND (Berkeley Internet Name Domain)
package developed through the Internet Software Consortium
Users wants to access by name so DNS will interpret the name into ip address. You need to
specify the Address if DNS server in each and every client machine. In Redhat Enterprise Linux,
you need to specify the DNS server into etcresolv.conf file.
After Specifying the DNS server address, you can verify using host, dig and nslookup commands.

---

QUESTION 3
CORRECT TEXT
Create the partition having 100MB size and mount it on mntneo

Answer and Explanation
1. Use fdisk devhda à To create new partition.
2. Type n à For New partitions
3. It will ask for Logical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.
4. It will ask for the Starting Cylinder Use the Default by pressing Enter Key.
5. Type the Size +100M à You can Specify either Last cylinder of Size here.
6. Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name.
7. Press w to write on partitions table.
8. Either Reboot or use partprobe command.
9. Use mkfs -t ext3 devhda Where is your partition number
10. Or
11. mke2fs -j devhda à To create ext3 filesystem.
12. mkdir mntneo
13. vi etcfstab
14. Write
15. devhda mntneo ext3 defaults 1 2
16. Verify by mounting on current Sessions also
17. mount devhda mntneo

---

QUESTION 4
CORRECT TEXT
Your System is going use as a router for 172.24.0.016 and 172.25.0.016. Enable the IP
Forwarding.

Answer and Explanation
1. echo 1 procsysnetipv4ip_forward
2. vi etcsysctl.conf
net.ipv4.ip_forward=1
proc is the virtual filesystem, containing the information about the running kernel. To change the
parameter of running kernel you should modify on proc. From Next reboot the system, kernel will
take the value from etcsysctl.conf.

---

QUESTION 5
CORRECT TEXT
Some users home directory is shared from your system. Using showmount -e localhost command,
the shared directory is not shown. Make access the shared users home directory.

Answer and Explanation
1. Verify the File whether Shared or not cat etcexports
2. Start the nfs service service nfs start
3. Start the portmap service service portmap start
4. Make automatically start the nfs service on next reboot chkconfig nfs on
5. Make automatically start the portmap service on next reboot chkconfig portmap on
6. Verify either sharing or not showmount -e localhost
7. Check that default firewall is running on system if running flush the iptables using iptables -F
and stop the iptables service.

---

QUESTION 6
CORRECT TEXT
neo user tried by
dd if=devzero of=homeneosomefile bs=1024 count=70
files created successfully. Again neo tried to create file having 70K using following command
dd if=devzero of=homeneosomefile bs=1024 count=70
But he is unable to create the file. Make the user can create the file less then 70K.

Answer and Explanation
Very Tricky question from redhat. Actually question is giving scenario to you to implement quota to
neo user. You should apply the quota to neo user on home that neo user shouldn't occupied
space more than 70K.
1. vi etcfstab
LABEL=home home ext3 defaults,usrquota 0 0 à To enable the quota on filesystem you should
mount the filesystem with usrquota for user quota and grpquota for group quota.
2. touch homeaquota.user àCreating blank quota database file.
3. mount -o remount home à Remounting the home with updated mount options. You can verify
that home is mounted with usrquota options or not using mount command.
4. quotacheck -u home à Initialization the quota on home
5. edquota -u neo home à Quota Policy editor
See the snapshot
Disk quotas for user neo (uid 500)
Filesystem blocks soft hard inodes soft hard
devmappervo-myvol 2 30 70 1 0 0
Can you set the hard limit 70 and soft limit as you think like 30.
Verify using the repquota home command.

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PRINCE2 Practitioner Practitioner

PRINCE2 Practitioner
The Practitioner is the second of the two PRINCE2 examinations you are required to pass to become a Registered PRINCE2 Practitioner.

This PRINCE2 examination is aiming to measure whether a candidate would be able to apply PRINCE2 to the running and managing of a project within an environment supporting PRINCE2. To this end they need to exhibit the competence required for the Foundation qualification, and show that they can apply and tune PRINCE2 to address the needs and problems of a specific project scenario, specifically, candidates must be able to:

Produce detailed explanations of all principles, themes and processes and worked examples of all PRINCE2 products as they might be applied to address the particular circumstances of a given project scenario
Show they understand the relationships between principles, themes and processes and PRINCE2 products and can apply this understanding
Demonstrate that they understand the reasons behind the principles, themes and processes of PRINCE2, and that they understand the principles underpinning these elements
Demonstrate their ability to tune PRINCE2 to different project circumstances.

Who Should Attend?
Project Managers
General Managers
Programme Managers
Team Managers and support staff
Staff who will have a defined role
Project Management Consultants.

Prerequisites
In order to sit the PRINCE2 Practitioner examination you must provide proof of having passed one of the following:

PRINCE2 Foundation
Project Management Professional (PMP)®
Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)®
IPMA Level A (Certified Projects Director)
IPMA Level B® (Certified Senior Project Manager)
IPMA Level C® (Certified Project Manager)
IPMA Level D® (Certified Project Management Associate)

Examination Format

150 minute exam duration 68 questions
38/68 required to pass = 55% pass mark
Open book exam (official PRINCE2 manual only)

You can read more about the Practitioner examination here.

What Next?
If you have already passed the PRINCE2 Foundation exam you can progress to PRINCE2 Practitioner via our:

PRINCE2 Practitioner online learning

or PRINCE2 Practitioner tutor-led classroom course.

Should you wish to undertake both the PRINCE2 Foundation and Practitioner you can choose from one of three pathways:

PRINCE2 Foundation and Practitioner online learning
PRINCE2 Foundation & Practitioner tutor-led classroom course
PRINCE2 Foundation & Practitioner (Gold) blended package.

QUESTION 1
Which of the following principles describes this statement?" xxx defines tolerances for each project objective to establish limits of delegated authority"

A. Manage by stages
B. Focus on products
C. Manage by exception
D. Learn from experience

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements is NOT correct? The Learn from Experience principle suggests that lessons should be actively sought...

A. When Starting a Project
B. When Initiating a Project
C. As the project progresses
D. As the project closes

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION 3
Which of the following principles uses Product Descriptions to provide clarity by defining each product's purpose, composition, derivation, format, quality criteria and quality method?

A. Tailor to suit the project environment
B. Focus on products
C. Manage by stages
D. Continued business justification

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the Continued Business Justification?

A. The justification for the project must remain the same throughout the project
B. The justification for the project should remain valid
C. The justification for the project may change
D. If the project is no longer justified it should be stopped

Answer: B
QUESTION 5
The Manage by Exception principle sets tolerances for six areas of the project, Time. Cost and Quality are three of them, what are the other three?

A. Scope, People & Resources, Benefit
B. Scope, Risk, Product
C. Risk, Benefit, Product
D. Scope, Risk, Benefit

Answer: A

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70-705 Designing and Providing Microsoft Licensing Solutions to Large Organizations

70-705 Designing and Providing Microsoft Licensing Solutions to Large Organizations

Published: October 19, 2017
Languages: English, Chinese (Simplified), French, German, Japanese, Portuguese (Brazil), Korean, Russian, Spanish
Audiences: IT Professionals
Technology: License Management
Credit toward certification: MCP

Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.

Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.

If you have concerns about specific questions on this exam, please submit an exam challenge.

If you have other questions or feedback about Microsoft Certification exams or about the certification program, registration, or promotions, please contact your Regional Service Center.

Recommend the appropriate technology solution (60-65%)
Evaluate the gap between the current and future technology solution
Identify the customer's short-term and long-term technology vision; identify a solution that would meet the customer requirements; choose between on-premises software, Online Services, or a combination of both.
Determine the required products and product licensing rights for the customer's on-premises solution
Identify product features and functions; list dependencies; recommend editions and versions; describe product licensing in both physical and virtual environments; recommend activation solutions; describe how to acquire software; choose the appropriate products, including Windows Server 2016, System Center 2016, SQL Server 2016, Skype for Business Server 2015, Exchange Server 2016, SharePoint Server 2016, Dynamics 365 On-Premises Server, Windows 10, and Office 2016.
Determine the required products and product licensing rights for the customer's Online Services solution
Identify product features and functions; list dependencies; recommend plans; recommend Step-up, From SA, or Add-on User Software Licenses (SLs); advise on use of Office 365 portal; choose the appropriate products, including Office 365, Enterprise Mobility + Security, Microsoft 365, and Dynamics 365.
Determine the required products and product licensing rights for the customer's Azure solution
Identify consumption services and Azure Plans; recommend solutions using the Azure Hybrid Use Benefit or License Mobility through SA; recommend Azure Enterprise Portal and Azure Management Portal to manage resources, consumption and spend.

Recommend the Appropriate Software Assurance Benefits (10-15%)
Leverage Software Assurance (SA) benefits for customer solutions
Identify benefits such as License Mobility across server farms, unlimited virtualization rights, Virtual Desktop Access, and Step-up licenses.
Assist the customer with SA benefit activation
Activate and manage training vouchers, Home Use Program, Planning Services, and 24x7 Problem Resolution Support.

Recommend a licensing solution (20-25%)
Select the appropriate licensing programs
Determine the customer’s software environment, including software deployment plans and strategy for on-premises, cloud or hybrid solutions, current Microsoft licensing agreements, geographic scope, budget requirements, payment options, expected growth, and purchasing process; recommend programs such as Enterprise Agreement, Enterprise Subscription Agreement, Cloud Solution Provider (CSP), MPSA, and crossover with Open and Open Value programs.
Identify product licensing rights
Choose between OEM and volume licensing; explain the benefits of volume licensing, including license reassignment, downgrade rights, and reimaging rights.

---

QUESTION 1 - (Topic 1)
A customer licenses all its deuces for Windows 10 Enterprise E3, Microsoft Office Professional Plus 2016, and Microsoft Core CAL Suite. All the licenses are covered with active Software Assurance (SA).
The customer wants to deliver virtual desktops that run Windows 10 Enterprise and Office Professional Plus 2016 to its users. The licensing solution must ensure that the customer can run virtual desktops in a Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) hosted in Microsoft Hyper-V.
Which additional license should the customer acquire for the devices?

A. a Windows Server Remote Desktop Services CAL
B. a Windows VDA license
C. a Windows Server CAL
D. a VDI Suite license

Answer: B

---

QUESTION 2 - (Topic 1)
A customer has Windows Server Datacenter licenses that have active Software Assurance (SA).
The customer plans to migrate Windows Server workloads to Microsoft Azure.
You need to identify which benefits support the planned migration.
Which two benefits should you identify? Each correct answers presents part of solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Azure Hybrid Benefit
B. License Mobility through SA
C. Self-Hosted rights
D. License Mobility Across Server Farms
E. Planning Services

Answer: A,B

---

QUESTION 4 - (Topic 1)
A customer needs a combination of the fallowing User Subscription Licenses (USLs):
• Enterprise Mobility + Security E3 From SA
• Microsoft Office 365 Enterprise E5 Add-on
• Office 365 Enterprise E3 Step-Up
What are two possible programs through which the customer can purchase the licenses? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Select Plus
B. Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA)
C. Cloud Solution Provider (CSP)
D. Enterprise Agreement Subscription
E. Enterprise Agreement (EA)

Answer: A,D

---

QUESTION 5 - (Topic 1)
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
A customer has 2,000 users.
The customer needs to buy Microsoft 365 Enterprise E3 User Subscription Licenses (USLs) for all the users. Additionally, the customer must purchase licenses covered with Software Assurance (SA) on an as-needed basis for products such as Microsoft SQL Server 2016.
Solution: The customer purchases the licenses through an Open agreement.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: A

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JN0-210 Cloud - Associate (JNCIA-Cloud)

Cloud Certification Track
The Juniper Networks Certification Program (JNCP) Cloud Track allows participants to demonstrate competence with cloud networking architectures such as multiclouds, software-defined networking, SD-WAN, and other cloud technologies. Successful candidates demonstrate understanding of the deployment, implementation, and configuration of various Juniper Networks cloud technologies.

Certification Path
The Cloud certification track is shown below. Click on the tab for a given certification to view its complete details.

ASSOCIATE Cloud, Associate (JNCIA-Cloud)
Designed for networking professionals with introductory-level knowledge of Juniper Networks cloud-based networking architectures, theory, and best practices, this written exam verifies the candidate’s understanding of cloud-based networking principles and technologies.

Prerequisite certification None
Exam Details JNCIA-Cloud exam topics are based on the content of the recommended instructor-led training courses, as well as the additional resources.
Exam code: JN0-210
Written exam administered at a Pearson VUE testing center or through an online proctor
Exam length: 90 minutes
Exam type: 65 multiple-choice questions
Pass/fail status is available immediately

Exam Objectives
This list provides a general view of the skill set required to successfully complete the specified certification exam.

Identify the concepts or functionality of various fundamental elements of cloud networking
Public, private, and hybrid clouds
XaaS: Components offered as services in a cloud environment
Underlay versus overlay

NFV
Identify the concepts, benefits or functionality of network function virtualization
vMX, vSRX, and NFX use cases
NFV framework
VNFs

SDN
Identify the concepts, operation or functionality of software-defined networking
SDN types
Contrail Cloud/Networking
OpenStack
NSX
Orchestration
Automation

SDN WAN
Identify the architectural elements of Juniper Networks WAN SDN solutions
NorthStar
WANDL

Cloud Monitoring
Identify Juniper Networks methods of analyzing cloud networking operations or devices
AppFormix (for example, smart networks)
Telemetry
Alerts
Contrail analytics

Cloud Management Services
Identify Juniper Networks cloud services solutions or components
CSO
vCPE/NFV: Distributed, centralized
SD-WAN
ZTP

Cloud Security Preparation
The resources listed on this section are recommended, but do not guarantee passing scores on JNCP exams. Success depends on each candidate’s motivation, experience, and dedication. Candidates may find additional resources not listed on this page helpful as well.

Juniper Networks Cloud Fundamentals (JCF)
Industry/Product Knowledge
Juniper Networks Technical Publications
ETSI NFV Architectural Framework
NorthStar Controller Datasheet
Sky ATP Datasheet
vSRX Virtual Firewall Datasheet
Architecture for Technology Transformation
NFX250 Network Services Platform Datasheet
Connecting Physical and Virtual Worlds with VMware NSX and Juniper Platforms
Automated Threat Containment with Cyphort and SRX Series Firewalls
Network Automation and Orchestration
AppFormix Datasheet
Contrail Networking Datasheet
cSRX Container Firewall Datasheet
Juniper Networks Cloud CPE Solution
Juniper Networks Public Cloud Security
Juniper Networks Public Cloud Routing
The NIST Definition of Cloud Computing

Recertification
The JNCIA-Cloud certification is valid for three years. To view the recertification options, go to the Recertification webpage.

QUESTION 1
What are two roles of the NorthStar? (Choose two)

A. to push endpoint device images to customer edge devices
B. to distribute routing updates to network devices
C. to optimize paths through the network based on traffic statistics
D. to calculate paths through the network based on topology information

Answer: C,D

QUESTION 2
You have a data center switching fabric that is comprised of Junos switches. You are using an API-based SDN implementation to manage the devices.
In this scenario, which statement is true?

A. The control plane is managed on the SDN controller
B. The control and forwarding planes are separated
C. The SDN controller makes routing and forwarding decisions
D. The control plane remains on the individual devices

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which two Juniper NFV products would be used to provide IPsec VPN termination between a public cloud provider and your network? (Choose two)

A. vQFX
B. vSRX
C. vMX
D. vRR

Answer: B,C

QUESTION 4
Which two statements are true regarding a zero trust network security model? (Choose two)

A. It assumes that security threat management cannot be centralized
B. It assumes that security threats can originate inside the network
C. It assumes that security threats can originate outside of the network
D. It assumes that security devices cannot detect and prevent network threats
Answer: B,C

QUESTION 5
What are two characteristics that make VXLAN preferred over other overlay protocol encapsulation methods? (Choose two)

A. VXLANs have a theoretical maximum ,000,000 VNIs
B. VXLAN is an open standard protocol
C. VXLAN provides easy integration into existing STP implementations
D. VXLANs forward BUM traffic into the underlay on an as needed basis

Answer: A,B

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