1Z0-964 Oracle Project Portfolio Management Cloud 2017 Implementation Essentials

Associated Certification Paths
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Project Portfolio Management Cloud 2017 Certified Implementation Specialist

Exam Details
Duration: 120
Number of Questions: 76
Passing Score: 60%
Exam has been validated against Oracle Fusion Project Portfolio Management Cloud Service R12.
Format: Multiple Choice

Fusion Project Portfolio Management overview
Describe the components of Oracle Cloud Project Portfolio Management
Explain the components available for integration

Navigation, User Experience, and Personalization
Describe the business processes that are supported by approvals and workflows
Set up approval and notification tasks

Oracle Fusion Applications Security Overview
Describe the Fusion Applications Security Console
Identify the roles delivered in a seeded security implementation
Manage roles and duties

Fusion Functional Setup Manager
Describe the Fusion Functional Setup Manager
Manage an implementation project
Describe the Rapid Implementation Workbook

Configure Fusion Common Applications
Explain Organizational Structures in Fusion Project Performance Management
Set up Enterprise Structures Units
Manage Reference Data sharing

Common project configuration
Explain common project configuration in Fusion Project Performance Management
Manage Subledger Accounting

Configure Fusion Project Foundation
Set up Project Calendars and Periods
Set up Types and Categorizations
Set up Project Roles
Manage Project Resources
Describe Rate Schedules
Describe Project Types
Explain Action Controls (Microsoft Project Integration)
Set up Transaction Sources
Manage Project Statuses

Configure Fusion Project Costing
Configure Fusion Project Cost Collection Center
Manage Burdening Schedules
Manage Allocations
Explain capitalized interest calculations
Describe Budgetary Controls
Configure Time & Labor for projects
Configure Fusion Integration Options
Describe Fusion Integration Methods

Configure Fusion Project Control
Configure the Resource Breakdown Structure
Setup Plan Types
Set up Project Budgets and Forecasts
Describe Project templates
Describe Financial Plans vs Project Plans

Configure Fusion Project Billing
Configure the Project Contract Model
Set up Revenue Recognition
Set up Project Invoicing
Configure Project Cross Charging and Transfer Pricing
Describe Borrowed and Lent vs Intercompany / Interproject Billing

Configure Project Performance Reporting
Configure Key Performance Indicators for project performance reporting

Configure Project Management
Describe common project execution components
Set up Project and Task codes
Set up Issue and Deliverable types
Describe project requirements
Set up Project Enterprise Structures
Configure Social Network for Project Execution

Configure Project Resource Management
Configure Project Labor Enterprise Resources
Set up Resource Pools
Set up Talent Profile Content

Fusion Project Reporting
Configure Infolets for PPM
Describe Oracle Transactional Business Intelligence (OTBI)

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C2150-620 IBM Security Network Protection (XGS) V5.3.2 System Administration

Test information:
Number of questions: 60
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 63%
Languages: English

Related certifications:
IBM Certified System Administrator - Security Network Protection (XGS) V5.3.2

The test consists of 5 sections containing a total of approximately 60 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections

Section 1 - Features and capabilities (13%)
Compute the available number of protected segments based on the model type, NIMs, and media types (fibre, copper, etc).
Demonstrate a deep knowledge of protection interface inspection modes and settings.
Given a scenario using a specific license type, demonstrate an understanding of what capabilities, settings, and objects are affected by the license.
Demonstrate an understanding of inspection, response capabilities, and deployment considerations.
Demonstrate how to obtain and apply X-Force Exchange-supplied OpenSignatures.
Demonstrate an understanding of User Authentication deployment considerations.

Section 2 - Plan and install (25%)
Given a requirement for network throughput, HA, SSL, bypass requirements and number of inspected segments, infer XGS sizing, network interface module required and licensing.
Demonstrate the use of the serial console and situations where it may be required (proper cabling of the appliance to achieve console access).
Examine the differences between the physical and virtual appliances, the scenarios where they can be used, and how they are deployed within their specific environments (e.g., distributed virtual switches).
Examine network topology to understand where to locate the XGS to achieve the required inspection and circumvent Inbound SSL Traffic Limitations.
Demonstrate an understanding of FIPS mode and how to configure it.
Construct an SSL Inspection implementation plan for both inbound and outbound traffic.
Produce a high availability architecture diagram demonstrating both an Active-Passive and an Active-Active deployment.
Perform first-time setup using Serial Console, CLI, & LMI.
Use the different methods for configuring the XGS, including the CLI, LMI, SiteProtector and know the compatible modes (strict vs. compatible mode).

Section 3 - Configure (28%)
Infer the proper setting to configure in-built hardware bypass, inspection mode, TCP reset, etc. on a protection interface.
Complete XGS registration in SiteProtector and verify all policies have been imported.
Modify Network Access Policy to demonstrate a knowledge of the different ways to inspect different traffic types and generate security events.
Manipulate policies to integrate with 3rd party products, (e.g., syslog, QRadar, SNMP, flow data).
Construct and manipulate IPS objects including changes to X-Force protection level and blocking.
Modify SSL Inspection Policy to inspect specific traffic, including outbound and inbound traffic.
Manipulate SSL encryption keys and certificates to enable inbound and outbound SSL inspection.
Use the PAM documentation to adjust signature rules behavior using advanced tuning parameters.
Modify the management access policy to restrict access to management interface.

Section 4 - Maintain (23%)
Modify Intrusion Prevention Policy to change default threat level and protection settings of signatures.
Modify system alerting policy to propagate certain types of logging events to local and remote logging mechanisms (remote syslog object vs local) and (management access policy).
Perform a snapshot and demonstrate an understanding of limitations when applying snapshots.
Infer appliance status via Log events, System Graphs, and Network Graphs.
Produce a backup of the system to the alternate partition and fail back.
Construct and apply new objects within the network access policy (eg. Address, Application, Inspection, Identity, Response).
Use IPS event Filters to ignore traffic and create exceptions.
Change update-related policies and apply updates to firmware, security content and application databases.

Section 5 - Support (10%)
Use tools available in the CLI to troubleshoot problems.
Perform hardware diagnostics using built-in capability as well as stand-alone diagnostics tool and physical examination of hardware, LEDs, etc.
Demonstrate how to reimage an XGS appliance and restore settings.
Perform a fixpack installation and demonstrate an understanding of the impact of doing so.
Use Service and Support feature to automatically open service requests and send log files to support.

IBM Certified System Administrator - Security Network Protection (XGS) V5.3.2

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This intermediate level certification is intended for network system administrators and system engineers working with IBM Security Network Protection (XGS) V5.3.2.

These system administrators require extensive hands-on experience with the product, are familiar with its features and capabilities, and understand how to plan for and install the product, configure, maintain and support it.

It is expected that these system administrators are generally self-sufficient and are able to perform the tasks involved in the job role with limited assistance from peers, product documentation and vendor support services.

To attain the IBM Certified System Administrator - Security Network Protection (XGS) V5.3.2 certification, candidates must pass 1 test. To prepare for the test, it is recommended to refer to the job role description and recommended prerequisite skills, and click the link to the test below to refer to the test objectives and the test preparation tab.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills

Basic knowledge of:
Intrusion prevention systems technology
Standard network protocols and practices, including the OSI model, secure network transmissions
Network design and architecture, including high availability (HA)
Security technologies such as firewalls, encryption using keys and certificates, SSL, HTTPS, SSH, intrusion detection, VLAN, Span Ports, etc.
Security vulnerabilities, exploits, and attack techniques
Different network media types and connectivity considerations (copper, fibre, transceiver)
Directory-based authentication
SiteProtector agent authentication, policy management, event propagation
Installing firmware from USB
Packet analysis
VMware vSphere administration

Requirements
This certification requires 1 test(s).

Test(s) required:
Click on the link(s) below to see test details, test objectives, suggested training and sample tests.

Test C2150-620 - IBM Security Network Protection (XGS) V5.3.2 System Administration

The test:
contains questions requiring single and multiple answers. For multiple-answer questions, you need to choose all required options to get the answer correct. You will be advised how many options make up the correct answer.
is designed to provide diagnostic feedback on the Examination Score Report, correlating back to the test objectives, informing the test taker how he or she did on each section of the test. As a result, to maintain the integrity of each test, questions and answers are not distributed.

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QUESTION 1
A System Administrator has been seeing a lot of SSLv2_Weak_Cipher attacks reported on the network and wants to Increase the severity of the events.
How can this be accomplished?

A. Modify the Threat Level of the signature
B. Create an Incident in SiteProtector for SSLv2_Weak_Cipher
C. Modify the Event Log response for the Intrusion Prevention Object
D. Increase the X-Force Protection Level for the Intrusion Prevention Object

Answer: D

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QUESTION 2
A System Administrator has an XGS 4100 appliance that has a single 8-port RJ-45 copper Network Interface Module (NIM) installed.
What is the maximum number of in-line network segments, of any media type, that could be protected?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 10

Answer: A

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QUESTION 3
A System Administrator has a requirement to be able to pause and resume an XGS for VMware machine to allow the ESXi server to move the servers to another machine.
Which statements regarding VMware Tools functionality is relevant to this requirement?

A. VMware Tools can be used to suspend inspection on the XGS for VMware and traffic will be forced into an automatic bypass mode.
B. VMware Tools can be used to suspend inspection on the XGS for VMware and traffic will not be forced into an automatic bypass mode.
C. VMware Tools functionality can be added to the appliance to provide a more streamlined user experience when migrating to another ESXi host.
D. VMware Tools functionality is already included and will be used when called by the hypervisor to manage the XGS for VMware virtual machine.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 4
The System Administrator of a banking organization has become aware of some malicious traffic to its IBM Security Network Protection (XGS) appliance. The logs show patterns of Denial of Service (DoS) attack and a lot of encrypted packets targeted to the M. 1 port of the XGS appliance coming from an internal laptop IP address.
What should the System Administrator do next?

A. Configure Management access policy to restrict access
B. Configure Inbound SSL policy to inspect and drop such traffic
C. Configure Management access policy to set the management port as TCP reset port
D. Configure Network access policy and Intrusion Prevention Policy to block DoS attacks

Answer: B

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JN0-680 JNCIP-DC Exam Objectives

This list provides a general view of the skill set required to successfully complete the specified certification exam. Topics listed are subject to change.

Data Center Deployment or Management
Describe Zero Touch Provisioning concepts
DHCP
Monitoring
Analytics
Describe ISSU/NSSU concepts
Requirements
Monitoring
Order of operations

Multichassis LAG
Describe MC-LAG concepts
Positioning scenarios
ICCP
Demonstrate knowledge of configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting MC-LAG
Troubleshooting tools

Mixed Virtual Chassis
Describe mixed Virtual Chassis concepts
Mixed VC PFE scaling
Mixed VC cabling
Provisioning a mixed VC
Mastership election
Demonstrate knowledge of configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting mixed Virtual Chassis technologies
Troubleshooting tools
Processes or components

Virtual Chassis Fabric
Describe VCF concepts
Mastership election
Physical layout
VCF control plane
Mixed VCF
VCF forwarding plane
Demonstrate knowledge of configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting VCFs
VCF management
VCF provisioning options
VCF management

IP Fabric
Describe IP Fabric concepts
3-stage Clos architecture
IP Fabric routing
IP Fabric scaling
IP Fabric best practices
Demonstrate knowledge of configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting IP Fabrics

VXLAN
Describe VXLAN concepts
L2VPN control planes
Multicast control plane
Data plane
Demonstrate knowledge of configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting VXLAN

EVPN VXLAN Signaling
Describe EVPN concepts
Route types
MP-BGP
MAC Learning
Demonstrate knowledge of configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting EVPNs

Data Center Interconnect
Describe DCI concepts
Interconnect network types
Intraconnect networks
Stitching
EVPN-signaled VXLAN for DCI
Demonstrate knowledge of configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting DCI
QUESTION 1
You are deploying 50 QFX5100 switches in your data center. You are asked to explain the benefits of using ZTP during your deployment of these devices.
What is a benefit of this deployment?

A. You must use DHCP options to provide Junos installation packages to all devices.
B. You must use DHCP options to provide the transfer mode used for pulling files from a storage server.
C. You can use DHCP options to push the configuration files to all devices.
D. You can use DHCP options to indicate which Junos version the switches should be running.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 2
What is the endpoint of a VXLAN tunnel?

A. DLCI
B. VTEP
C. LSR
D. VCF

Answer: B

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QUESTION 3
Your server administrator asks you to preserve the inner VLAN tags of the frames coming from a Layer 2 VXLAN Gateway of the EVPN-enabled segment.
Which two parameters must you add to the configuration to allow the VLAN tag to be passed? (Choose two.)

A. layer2-protocol-tunneling
B. decapsulate-accept-inner-vlan
C. dotlq-tunneling
D. encapsulate-inner-vlan

Answer: B,D

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Exam RC0-N06 CompTIA Network+ Recertification Exam for Continuing Education

Eligibility Candidates MUST have:
An active Network+ CE certification earned by passing exam N10-005 or earlier.
Received an email from CompTIA containing a Private Access Code (PAC).

Exam Description
The CompTIA Network+ Recertification Exam covers these domains:
1.0 Network Architecture (17% of total)
2.0 Network Operations (15% of total)
3.0 Network Security (20% of total)
4.0 Troubleshooting (28% of total)
5.0 Industry standards, practices, and network theory (20% of total)

Number of Questions 45
Type of Questions Multiple choice questions (single and multiple response)
Length of Test 75 Minutes
Passing Score 7​20 (on a scale of 100-900)

Only candidates with an active Network+ CE certification will receive CEU credit.
Passing the exam will automatically renew your existing Network+ CE. Please allow 1-3 days for your record to be updated.
INTRODUCTION
The  CompTIA Network

Re certification  Exam is one way for CompTIA certified professionals to keep their Network+ certification active. A CompTIA Network+ certification earned on or after January 1st, 2011 is valid for three years from the date the certification was earned. The certification must be renewed within three years in order for the individual to remain certified. To remain certified, individuals may:

Re-take (and pass) the current certification exam (N10-006)
Participate in continuing education activities

Take (and pass) the Network+ recertification exam (RC0-N06)

The CompTIA Network+ Recertification Exam RC0-N06 bridges the competencies measured by the Network+ N10-005 series and the N10-006 series. The exam (RC0-N06) blueprint includes the objectives new to the N10-006 series and also assesses the highest weighted competencies that appear on the exam (i.e., the knowledge and skills rated by SMEs as most relevant for on-the-job -performance).

NOTE: Availability of RC0-N06 is LIMITED TO THOSE who have kept their Network+ certification active and have not taken and passed the current N10-006 series exam.
CompTIA Network+ is accredited by ANSI to show compliance with the ISO 17024 Standard and, as such, undergoes regular reviews and updates to the exam objectives. The following CompTIA Network+ Recertification RC0-N06 exam objectives result from subject matter expert workshops and industry-wide survey results regarding the skills and knowledge required of an entry-level IT technical support professional.

This examination blueprint includes domain weighting, test objectives, and example content. Example topics and concepts are included to clarify the test objectives and should not be construed as a
comprehensive listing of all the content of this examination.

Candidates are encouraged to use this document to guide their studies. The table below lists the domains measured by this examination and the extent to which they are represented. The CompTIA Network+ RC0-N06 exam is based on these objectives

QUESTION 1 - (Topic 1)
A technician, Joe, needs to troubleshoot a recently installed NIC. He decides to ping the local loopback address. Which of the following is a valid IPv4 loopback address?

A. 10.0.0.1
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 172.16.1.1
D. 192.168.1.1

Answer: B

Explanation:
The loopback address is a special IP address that is designated for the software loopback interface of a computer. The loopback interface has no hardware associated with it, and it
is not physically connected to a network. The loopback address causes any messages sent to it to be returned to the sending system. The loopback address allows client software to communicate with server software on the same computer. Users specify the loopback address which willpoint back to the computer's TCP/IP network configuration.
In IPv4, the loopback address is 127.0.0.1.
In IPv6, the loopback address is 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1, more commonly notated as follows. ::1

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QUESTION 2 - (Topic 1)
A technician needs to set aside addresses in a DHCP pool so that certain servers always receive the same address. Which of the following should be configured?

A. Leases
B. Helper addresses
C. Scopes
D. Reservations

Answer: D

Explanation:
A reservation is used in DHCP to ensure that a computer always receives the same IP address. To create a reservation, you need to know the hardware MAC address ofthe network interface card that should receive the IP address.
For example, if Server1 has MAC address of 00:A1:FB:12:45:4C and that computer should always get 192.168.0.7 as its IP address, you can map the MAC address of Server1 with the IP address to configure reservation.

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QUESTION 3 - (Topic 1)
A technician, Joe, has been tasked with assigning two IP addresses to WAN interfaces on connected routers. In order to conserve address space, which of the following subnet masks should Joe use for this subnet?

A. /24
B. /32
C. /28
D. /29
E. /30

Answer: E

Explanation:
An IPv4 addressconsists bits. The first x number of bits in the address is the network address and the remaining bits are used for the host addresses. The subnet mask defines how many bits form the network address and from that, we can calculate how many bits are used for the host addresses.
In this question, the /30 subnet mask dictates that the first 30 bits of the IP address are used for network addressing and the remaining 2 bits are used for host addressing. The formula to calculate the number of hosts in a subnet is 2n - 2. The "n" in the host's formula represents the number of bits used for host addressing. If we apply the formula (22 – 2), a /30 subnet mask will provide 2 IP addresses.

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QUESTION 4 - (Topic 1)
Which of the following is MOST likely to use an RJ-11 connector to connect a computer to an ISP using a POTS line?

A. Multilayer switch
B. Access point
C. Analog modem
D. DOCSIS modem

Answer: C

Explanation:
Before ADSL broadband connections became the standard for Internet connections, computers used analog modems to connect to the Internet. By today’s standards, analog modems are very slow typically offering a maximum bandwidth Kbps.
An analog modem (modulator/demodulator) converts (modulates) a digital signal from a computerto an analog signal to be transmitted over a standard (POTS) phone line. The modem then converts (demodulates) the incoming analog signal to digital data to be used by the computer.
An analog modem uses an RJ-11 connector to connect to a phone line (POTS)in the same way a phone does.

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QUESTION 5 - (Topic 1)
A host has been assigned the address 169.254.0.1. This is an example of which of the following address types?

A. APIPA
B. MAC
C. Static
D. Public

Answer: A

Explanation:
APIPA stands for Automatic Private IP Addressing and is a feature of Windows operating systems. When a client computer is configured to use automatic addressing (DHCP), APIPA assigns a class B IP address from 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255 to the client when a DHCP server is unavailable.
When a client computer configured to use DHCP boots up, it first looks for a DHCP server to provide the client with IP address and subnet mask. If the client is unable to contact a DHCP server, it uses APIPA to automatically configure itself with an IP address from a range that has been reserved especially for Microsoft. The client also configures itself with a default class Bsubnet mask .255.0.0. The client will use the self-configured IP address until a DHCP server becomes available.

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QUESTION 6 - (Topic 1)
A network engineer needs to set up a topology that will not fail if there is an outage on a single piece of the topology. However, the computers need to wait to talk on the network to avoid congestions. Which of the following topologies would the engineer implement?

A. Star
B. Bus
C. Ring
D. Mesh

Answer: C

Explanation:
Token Ring networks are quite rare today. Token Ring networks use the ring topology. Despite being called a Ring topology, the ring is logical and the physical network structure often forms a ‘star’ topology with all computers on the network connecting to a central multistation access unit (MAU). The MAU implements the logical ring by transmitting signals to each node in turn and waiting for the node to send them back before it transmits to the next node. Therefore, although the cables are physically connected in a star, the data path takes the form of a ring. If any computer or network cable fails in a token ring network, the remainder of the network remains functional. The MAU has the intelligence to isolate the failed segment.
To ensure that the computers need to wait to talk on the network to avoid congestions, a Token Ring network uses a ‘token’. The token continually passes around the network until a computer needs to send data. The computer then takes the token and transmits the data beforereleasing the token. Only a computer in possession of the token can transmit data onto the network.

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300-165 DCII Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric

Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric
Exam Number 300-165 DCII
Associated Certifications CCNP Data Center
Duration 90 minutes (60-70 questions)
Available Languages English

This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of implementing data center infrastructure including key protocols, routing and switching protocols, maintenance, management, operations, security, and storage.

The Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (DCII) exam (300-165) is a 90-minute, 60–70 question assessment. This exam is one of the exams associated with the CCNP Data Center Certification. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of implementing Cisco data center infrastructure including key protocols, routing and switching protocols, maintenance, management, operations, security, and storage. The course, Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure v6 (DCII), helps candidates to prepare for this exam because the content is aligned with the exam topics.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

1.0 Implement Data Center Protocols 29%

1.1 Implement vPC

1.2 Implement FabricPath

1.2.a Segment ID
1.2.b Distributed gateway, anycast HSRP
1.2.c Multiprotocol BGP
1.2.d vPC+

1.3 Implement VXLAN

1.3.a Distributed gateway
1.3.b Multiprotocol-BGP-EVPN
1.3.c vPC

1.4 Implement OTV

1.5 Implement LISP

2.0 Implement Routing and Switching Protocols 22%

2.1 Implement routing protocols

2.1.a OSPFv2, OSPFv3
2.1.b IS-IS
2.1.c PIM
2.1.d FHRP
2.1.d [i] HSRP
2.1.d [ii] VRRP

2.2 Implement switching protocols

2.2.a STP
2.2.b LACP/port channel
2.2.c FEX, VNTAG

3.0 Data Center Infrastructure Maintenance, Management, and Operations 14%

3.1 Plan and execute software updates

3.1.a Disruptive / nondisruptive
3.1.b EPLD

3.2 Implement configuration management

3.2.a Backups / restore
3.2.b Checkpoints /rollback

3.3 Implement infrastructure monitoring

3.3.a Logging
3.3.b SNMP
3.3.c Call Home
3.3.d NetFlow
3.3.e SPAN

3.4 Configure time synchronization

3.4.a PTP
3.4.b NTP

4.0 Data Center Infrastructure Security 12%

4.1 Implement ACLs

4.2 Implement AAA and RBAC

4.3 Implement keychain authentication

4.4 Implement first-hop security

4.4.a Dynamic ARP inspections
4.4.b DHCP snooping
4.4.c Unicast RPF
4.4.d MACsec
4.4.e Port security

4.5 Implement CoPP

4.6 Implement fabric binding and port security

5.0 Infrastructure Storage 23%

5.1 Implement Fibre Channel fabric

5.1.a Switched fabric initialization
5.1.b Port channels, ISL
5.1.c FCID
5.1.d FCIP

5.2 Implement Fibre Channel Protocol services

5.2.a Zoning
5.2.b Cisco Fabric Services
5.2.c FCNS
5.2.d Device alias
5.2.e VSAN
5.2.f FSPF

5.3 Implement FCoE Unified Fabric

5.3.a Storage VDC
5.3.b FIP
5.3.c FCoE topologies
5.3.d DCB
QUESTION 1 - (Topic 1)
Which statement about the Layer 3 card on the Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch is true?

A. BGP support is not provided, but RIP, EIGRP, and OSPF support is provided.
B. Up to two 4-port cards are supported with up to 160 Gb/s of Layer 3 forwarding capability.
C. Up to 16 FEX connections are supported.
D. Port channels cannot be configured as Layer 3 interfaces.

Answer: C

Explanation:
From the Cisco NX-OS 5.1(3)N1(1) release and later releases, each Cisco Nexus 5500 Series device can manage and support up to 24 FEXs without Layer 3. With Layer 3, the number of FEXs supported per Cisco Nexus 5500 Series device is 8. With Enhanced vPC and a dual-homed FEX topology each FEX is managed by both Cisco Nexus 5000 Series devices. As a result, one pair of Cisco Nexus 5500 Series devices can support up to 24 FEXs and 16 FEXs for Layer 2 and Layer 3.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/mkt_ops_guides/513 _n1_1/n5k_enhanced_vpc.html

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QUESTION 2 - (Topic 1)
Which statement about SNMP support on Cisco Nexus switches is true?

A. Cisco NX-OS only supports SNMP over IPv4.
B. Cisco NX-OS supports one instance of the SNMP per VDC.
C. SNMP is not VRF-aware.
D. SNMP requires the LAN_ENTERPRISE_SERVICES_PKG license.
E. Only users belonging to the network operator RBAC role can assign SNMP groups.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Cisco NX-OS supports one instance of the SNMP per virtual device context (VDC). By default, Cisco NX-OS places you in the default VDC. SNMP supports multiple MIB module instances and maps them to logical network entities. SNMP is also VRF aware. You can configure SNMP to use a particular VRF to reach the SNMP notification host receiver. You can also configure SNMP to filter notifications to an SNMP host receiver based on the VRF where the notification occurred.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-os/system_management/configuration/guide/sm_nx_os_cg/sm_9snmp.html

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QUESTION 3 - (Topic 1)
Which three items must be configured in the port profile client in Cisco UCS Manager? (Choose three.)

A. port profile
B. DVS
C. data center
D. folder
E. vCenter IP address
F. VM port group

Answer: B,C,D

Explanation:
After associating an ESX host to a DVS, you can migrate existing VMs from the vSwitch to the DVS, and you can create VMs to use the DVS instead of the vSwitch. With the hardware-based VN-Link implementation, when a VM uses the DVS, all VM traffic passes through the DVS and ASIC-based switching is performed by the fabric interconnect.
In Cisco UCS Manager, DVSes are organized in the following hierarchy: vCenter
Folder (optional)
Datacenter
Folder (required)
DVS
At the top of the hierarchy is the vCenter, which represents a VMware vCenter instance. Each vCenter contains one or more datacenters, and optionally vCenter folders with which you can organize the datacenters. Each datacenter contains one or more required
datacenter folders. Datacenter folders contain the DVSes.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1-3-1/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1/UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1_c hapter28.html

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QUESTION 4 - (Topic 1)
Which GLBP load-balancing algorithm ensures that a client is always mapped to the same VMAC address?

A. vmac-weighted
B. dedicated-vmac-mode
C. shortest-path and weighting
D. host-dependent

Answer: D

Explanation:
Host dependent—GLBP uses the MAC address of the host to determine which virtual MAC address to direct the host to use. This algorithm guarantees that a host gets the same virtual MAC address if the number of virtual forwarders does not change.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-os/unicast/configuration/guide/l3_cli_nxos/l3_glbp.html

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300-210 SITCS Implementing Cisco Threat Control Solutions

300-210 SITCS
Implementing Cisco Threat Control Solutions

Exam Number 300-210 SITCS
Associated Certifications CCNP Security
Duration 90 minutes (65 - 75 questions)
Available Languages English
Register Pearson VUE
Exam Policies Read current policies and requirements
Exam Tutorial Review type of exam questions

This exam tests on advanced firewall architecture and configuration with the Cisco next-generation firewall, utilizing access and identity policies. Some older technologies have been removed, such as Cisco Intrusion-prevention system & Firewall CX. Coverage was added for Cisco NGFW, Cisco Firepower NGIPS and Cisco AMP (Advanced Malware Protection), as well as Web and Email Security solutions.

Exam Description
The Implementing Cisco Threat Control Solutions (SITCS) exam (300-210) is part of the CCNP Security certification. It tests a network security engineer on advanced firewall architecture and configuration with the Cisco next-generation firewall, utilizing access and identity policies. This new revision of the SITCS exam replaces 300-207, removes some older technologies, and adds coverage for both Cisco Firepower NGIPS and Cisco AMP (Advanced Malware Protection). This 90-minute exam consists of 65–75 questions and covers integration of Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) and context-aware firewall components, as well as Web (Cloud) and Email Security solutions. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Implementing Cisco Threat Control Solutions (SITCS) course.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

1.0 Content Security 27%

1.1 Cisco Cloud Web Security (CWS)
1.1.a Describe the features and functionality
1.1.b Implement the IOS and ASA connectors
1.1.c Implement the Cisco AnyConnect web security module
1.1.d Implement web usage control
1.1.e Implement AVC
1.1.f Implement antimalware
1.1.g Implement decryption policies

1.2 Cisco Web Security Appliance (WSA)
1.2.a Describe the features and functionality
1.2.b Implement data security
1.2.c Implement WSA identity and authentication, including transparent user identification
1.2.d Implement web usage control
1.2.e Implement AVC
1.2.f Implement antimalware and AMP
1.2.g Implement decryption policies
1.2.h Implement traffic redirection and capture methods (explicit proxy vs. transparent proxy)

1.3 Cisco Email Security Appliance
1.3.a Describe the features and functionality
1.3.b Implement email encryption
1.3.c Implement antispam policies
1.3.d Implement virus outbreak filter
1.3.e Implement DLP policies
1.3.f Implement antimalware and AMP
1.3.g Implement inbound and outbound mail policies and authentication
1.3.h Implement traffic redirection and capture methods
1.3.i Implement ESA GUI for message tracking

2.0 Network Threat Defense 22%

2.1 Cisco Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW) Security Services
2.1.a Implement application awareness
2.1.b Implement access control policies (URL-filtering, reputation based, file filtering)
2.1.c Configure and verify traffic redirection
2.1.d Implement Cisco AMP for Networks

2.2 Cisco Advanced Malware Protection (AMP)
2.2.a Describe cloud detection technologies
2.2.b Compare and contrast AMP architectures (public cloud, private cloud)
2.2.c Configure AMP endpoint deployments
2.2.d Describe analysis tools
2.2.e Describe incident response functionality
2.2.f Describe sandbox analysis
2.2.g Describe AMP integration

3.0 Cisco FirePOWER Next-Generation IPS (NGIPS) 20%

3.1 Configurations

3.2 Describe traffic redirection and capture methods
3.2.a Describe preprocessors and detection engines
3.2.b Implement event actions and suppression thresholds
3.2.c Implement correlation policies
3.2.d Describe SNORT rules
3.2.e Implement SSL decryption policies

3.3 Deployments
3.3.a Deploy inline or passive modes
3.3.b Deploy NGIPS as appliance, virtual appliance, or module within an ASA
3.3.c Describe the need for traffic symmetry
3.3.d Compare inline modes: inline interface pair and inline tap mode

4.0 Security Architectures 17%

4.1 Design a web security solution
4.1.a Compare and contrast Cisco FirePOWER NGFW, WSA, and CWS
4.1.b Compare and contrast physical WSA and virtual WSA
4.1.c Describe the available CWS connectors

4.2 Design an email security solution
4.2.a Compare and contrast physical ESA and virtual ESA
4.2.b Describe hybrid mode

4.3 Design Cisco FirePOWER solutions
4.3.a Configure the virtual routed, switched, and hybrid interfaces
4.3.b Configure the physical routed interfaces

5.0 Troubleshooting, Monitoring, and Reporting Tools 14%

5.1 Design a web security solution
5.1.a Compare and contrast FirePOWER NGFW, WSA, and CWS
5.1.b Compare and contrast physical WSA and virtual WSA
5.1.c Describe the available CWS connectors

5.2 Cisco Web Security Appliance (WSA)
5.2.a Implement the WSA Policy Trace tool
5.2.b Describe WSA reporting functionality
5.2.c Troubleshoot using CLI tools

5.3 Cisco Email Security Appliance (ESA)
5.3.a Implement the ESA Policy Trace tool
5.3.b Describe ESA reporting functionality
5.3.c Troubleshoot using CLI tools

5.4 Cisco FirePOWER
5.4.a Describe the Cisco FirePOWER Management Center dashboards and reports
5.4.b Implement health policy
5.4.c Configure email, SNMP, and syslog alerts
5.4.d Troubleshoot NGIPS using CLI tools

---

QUESTION: No: 1
Which three operating systems are supported with Cisco AMP for Endpoints? (Choose three.)

A. Windows
B. AWS
C. Android
D. Cisco IOS
E. OSX
F. ChromeOS

Answer: A, C, E

---

QUESTION: No: 2
Which Cisco Web Security Appliance feature enables the appliance to block suspicious traffic on all of its
ports and IP addresses?

A. explicit forward mode
B. Layer 4Traffic Monitor
C. transparent mode
D. Secure Web Proxy

Answer: B

---

QUESTION: No: 3
Which feature requires the network discovery policy for it to work on the Cisco Next Generate fusion
Prevent-on System?

A. impact flags
B. URL filtering
C. security intelligence
D. health monitoring

Answer: A

---

QUESTION: No: 4
Which CLI command is used to register a Cisco FirePOWER sensor to Firepower Management Center?

A. configure system add <host><key>
B. configure manager <key> add host
C. configure manager delete
D. configure manger add <host><key>

Answer: A

---

QUESTION: No: 5
In WSA , which two pieces of information are required to implement transparent user identification using
Context Directory Agent? (Choose two.)

A. the sewer name where Context Directory Agent is installed
B. the server name of the global catalog domain controller
C. the backup Context Directory Agent
D. the shared secret
E. the syslog server IP address

Answer: AE

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C2040-985 Developing IBM Lotus Notes and Domino 8.5 Applications

Lotus certification has restructured the ND8.5 certification paths. For more information, please check out the announcement on the Lotus Certification index page.

Test information:
Number of questions: 97
Time allowed in minutes: 120
Required passing score: 75%
Languages: English, Japanese

Exam 985: Developing IBM Lotus Notes and Domino 8.5 Applications

Description: Covers Lotus Notes Domino 8.5 material as it relates to these competency areas:
Application Architecture
Application Configuration
Application Management
Design Elements
Domino Designer in Eclipse
Programming
Security

Application Architecture
Connecting to internal data - internal to notes
Creating mail-enabled forms
Creating mail-in databases
Designing and creating navigation for an application
Designing applications incorporating OLE objects
Exploring page layout and navigation
Incorporating full text indexing
Planning a classic Notes Application
Preventing replication or save conflicts
Referencing design element IDs: UNID and NOTEID
Signing databases and design elements
Understanding the concept of application replicas
Using images in applications
Using tables to manage page layout

Application Configuration
Creating Public access forms
Creating, Modifying, and Troubleshooting
File Resources
Images for Web clients
JavaScript for Notes and Web clients
Links for Web clients
Outlines for Web clients
Pages for Web clients
Style Sheets
Views for Web clients
Web Agents
Web Services
Employing Java Applets
Implementing Java Servlets
Server document settings affecting agents
Setting database launch properties
Troubleshooting database performance
Understand purpose and use of the Problems view

Application Management
Controlling what gets replicated
Copying an existing Domino application
Creating an application from a template
Creating an application icon
Creating templates
Enabling and preventing design inheritance
Enabling document locking
Making and distributing design changes
Providing online Help for an application
Setting application properties
Starting an application from scratch
Troubleshooting application access
Understand document properties
Using Design Synopsis to analyze application elements

Design Elements
Arrange, show, and hide Eclipse views
Creating sorted and categorized views
Creating, modifying, and troubleshooting
Actions
Agents
Embedded Elements
Folders
for Different Clients
Forms
Java Libraries
JavaScript Libraries
Outlines
Pages
Profile Documents
Subforms
Views
Creating/using Image resources
Customizing twisties
Displaying an icon in a column
Displaying document hierarchy
Displaying values in columns
Hide form based on Client type/device type
Hiding design elements
Managing design changes with the Design task
Personalizing Web site experience using Profile Documents
Restricting Form and Document access
Setting database properties to improve database performance
Setting styles for a calendar view
Using calendar views in applications
Using design perspectives
Working with Autosave
Working with different field types
Working with hide when formulas
Working with reserved fields
Working with Shared Resources
Working with Text, Rich Text, and Rich Text Lite fields
Working with Time Zone fields

Domino Designer in Eclipse
Access design elements using the Applications Navigator
Access online Help via Eclipse plug-ins
Manage Working Sets
Understand purpose and use of the Properties view

Programming
Adding instant messaging to an application
Connecting to Enterprise Data
Controlling the display of information on forms using Hide-when options
Creating programmable tables
Creating right mouse button menu items
Creating, Modifying, and Troubleshooting Framesets
Customizing the Designer Tools menu
Deploying a simple Java applet on a Web page
Deploying, utilizing LotusScript agents
Indenting response documents
LotusScript
Accessing and manipulating the current document using NotesUIDocument
Accessing Databases, Views, and Documents
Displaying information to a user on the Status Bar or with Messageboxes
Searching for Documents in a View or Database
Stepping through a View to access Documents
Managing data and design replication
Managing display options for views
Managing field access with input enabled formulas
Programming window titles
Programming with the formula language
Rendering HTML in applications
Securing the design of a database
Setting Programmer pane properties
Sharing, locking, and editing design elements
Understand purpose and use of the Events view
Understand the LotusScript Object Model
Understanding the JavaScript Document Object Model (DOM)
Understanding transaction logging
Using @Commands in Web applications
Using @Functions in Web applications
Using advanced options for columns
Using CGI variables
Using CSS for adding style
Using Document encryption
Using Domino URL Syntax
Using HTML for Notes and Web access
Using JavaScript controls for display of rich text
Using JavaScript in applications
Using other controls for displaying rich text
Using Reader and Author fields
Using the HTML Editor
Using the Objects tab in the Programmer's pane
Using the Reference tab in Designer
Using XML in applications
Utilizing HTML option control at field and form level
Validating user entered data using JavaScript
Working with dialog boxes: tables, and forms
Working with HTML attributes on fields
Working with Lists
Working with special web development fields (e.g., $$Return, $$View)
Writing formulas to support different clients
Writing messages to the user
Writing portable code

Security
Adding security to an application
Defining security levels for application users
Designing applications based on Summary/Non-Summary data storage
Managing security with Roles
Managing the ACL
Restricting Section access
Restricting View access
Setting access for Anonymous users
Setting Defaults for an application

QUESTION 1
Daniel is designing a Suggestions application and wants to minimize replication conflicts. Which
one of the following will accomplish this?

A. Assign users Editor access to the database. Create a form of type Document and name the
form "Suggestion". Create a form of type Comment and name the form "Comments". Use Authors
fields on both forms.
B. Assign users Author access to the database. Create a form of type Document and name the
form "Suggestion". Create a form of type Comment and name the form "Comments". Use Readers
fields on both forms.
C. Assign users Author access to the database. Create a form of type Document and name the
form "Suggestion". Create a form of type Response and name the form "Comments". Use Authors
fields on both forms.
D. Assign users Editor access to the database. Create a form of type Document and name the
form "Suggestion". Create a form of type Response and name the form "Comments". Use
Readers fields on both forms.

Answer: C

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 2
Mac is planning a Change Control application that will be used by thousands of staff located in 10
different countries. What is one thing Mac can do to help optimize the performance of the
application for his users?

A. On the Advanced tab of Database properties, enable "Support specialized response hierarchy"
and enable "Allow simple search"
B. On the Advanced tab of Database properties, enable "Don't support specialized response
hierarchy" and disable "Allow simple search"
C. Use File > Application > New Copy to create a copy of the application on a server in each
country, and have users access the application from a local server.
D. Use File > Replication > New Replica to create a replica of the application on a server in each
country, and have users access the application from a local server.

Answer: D

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 3
Joe wants to display a company logo in the background of a view in his sales application. How can
he do this?

A. Use an Image Resource as the background graphic for the view
B. Use a URL as the background graphic for the view, where the URL points to the logo
C. Display the view in a frameset, and set the background of the view's frame to an Image
Resource or URL depicting the logo
D. He can't do this. Views cannot have background graphics.

Answer: A

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 4
Kelly supports the Inventory application. This application is accessed by staff in India, the UK,
Brazil, and the US
A. For reasons of performance and contingency planning, the office in each
country has its own server. Kelly needs the Inventory application to reside on each of these
servers, and she needs to ensure that the application data and design is kept in sync among all of
these locations. How can Kelly meet this requirement?

A. Select the Inventory application. For each server, create a synchronized copy of the application
by selecting File > Synchronization > New Copy.
B. Select the Inventory application. For each server, create a mirror of the application by selecting
File > Application > New Mirror, and specify the target Server.
C. Select the Inventory application. For each server, create a replica of the application by selecting
File > Replication > New Replica, and specify the target Server.
D. Select the Inventory application. For each server, create a copy of the application by selecting
File > Application > New Copy. Specify the target Server, and select the Synchronize option.

Answer: C

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 5
Hassan has been emailed a spreadsheet with information about new training opportunities at his
company. He has been asked to update the company's Announcements application with a link
that, when clicked, will open the spreadsheet. How can Hassan accomplish this?

A. Import the presentation as a new File Resource, assigning an alias of "New Training". Add a
new entry to the application outline, selecting Action as the Content Type, and setting the Content
Value to @Command([OpenResource]; "New Training").
B. Embed the presentation on a new page, setting the page Auto Launch property to First OLE
Object. Add a new entry to the application outline, selecting Named Element as the Content Type
and selecting the new page as the Content Value.
C. Attach the presentation on the About application document. Set the database launch property
to launch the first attachment in the About database. Add a new entry to the application outline,
selecting Action as the Content Type and setting the Content Value to
@Command([HelpAboutDatabase]).
D. Import the presentation as a new Image Resource, retaining the filename extension as part of
the resource name. Add a new entry to the application outline, selecting Named Element as the
Content Type and selecting the new image resource as the Content Value.

Answer: B

Explanation:

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C2040-951 IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8.5 System Administration Update

Test information:
Number of questions: 50
Time allowed in minutes: 75
Required passing score: 76%
Languages: English, Japanese

Exam 956: IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8.5 System Administration Update

Description: Covers Lotus Notes Domino 8.5 material as it relates to these competency areas:
Install and Configure
Manage and Maintain
Security

Install and Configure
Creating Dynamic Policies
Deploying a centrally managed Widget Catalog
Implementing Domino Attachment and Object Service (DAOS)
Implementing Domino Configuration Tuner
Implementing Domino Roaming for Standard Clients
Implementing Early Authentication
Implementing iNotes Redirector Changes
Implementing Lotus iNotes enhancements
Implementing Lotus Notes on Citrix
Implementing Lotus Traveler

Manage and Maintain
Implementing Console Log Mirroring
Implementing Image Compression
Implementing Lotus Traveler Policies
Understanding iNotes Redirector Changes
Understanding Router Optimizations
Utilizing Administration Process statistics
Utilizing Domino Attachment and Object Service (DAOS)
Utilizing Domino Configuration Tuner
Utilizing Domino server commands
Utilizing Dynamic Policies
Utilizing the Widget Catalog

Security
Deploying Lotus Traveler Security Features
Deploying the ID Vault
Deploying xPages Security
Implementing Shared Login
Implementing the ID Vault
Managing Shared Login
Managing the ID Vault

 

---

QUESTION 1
Darren is working with the Outline view on a new XPage. He drags a button control so that it is above an
edit box control. What effect does this have on the XPage in the Design editor?

A. The button control will move above and to the left of edit box control.
B. There will be no effect until Darren saves the Xpage, then the button control will move above and to the
left of edit box control.
C. There will be no effect until Darren clicks the Synchronize Navigator with Editor tab in the application
navigator, then the button control willmove above and to the left of edit box control.
D. There will be no effect until Darren clicks the Synchronize Navigator with Editor tab in the Outline view,
then the button control will moveabove and to the left of edit box control.

Answer: A

---

QUESTION 2
Abbas has imported the screen.css stylesheet into his application. He has discovered that he needs to
edit the properties of some of the classes in the CSS. What steps can he follow to make the needed
changes and save the CSS changes within the application?

A. From the application navigator in Designer, expand Resources and expand Style Sheets. Double-click
screen.css to use the built-in CSSeditor.
B. From the application navigator in Designer, expand Resources and expand Style Sheets. Click
screen.css and in the Outline view select aclass to use the built-in CSS editor.
C. From the application navigator in Designer, expand Resources and double-click Style Sheets. Select
screen.css in the Design pane. Fromthe Design tab of the Properties view, double-click a CSS class to
edit its properties.
D. From the application navigator in Designer, expand Resources and double-click Style Sheets. Select
screen.css in the Design pane. Fromthe Web Properties tab of the Properties view, double-click a CSS
class to edit its properties.

Answer: A

---

QUESTION 3
Janet uses Domino Designer's Dynamic Help feature to clarify something. What kind of help will she get?

A. An animated, talking icon that offers to assist her.
B. A wizard that follows a support tree to narrow down the answer to her question.
C. A personalized search interface that remembers all of her previous searches and their results.
D. A context-sensitive help view that constantly updates a list of possible relevant topics based on what
she's doing.

Answer: D

---

QUESTION 4
Joshua would like to have a cookie set on his Movie Rental XPage before it loads on the browser. Which
view would Joshua use to add this functionality?

A. Events view
B. Controls view
C. Properties view
D. Applications view

Answer: A

---

QUESTION 5
Carlos added an edit box control to his registration XPage. He wants to make the field a required field with
a message displaying to the user if the field is left blank. Where would he add these additional features to
the edit box control?

A. Editor
B. Events view
C. Properties view
D. Controls palette

Answer: C

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C2040-402 Administering IBM Connections 4.0

Test information:
Number of questions: 69
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 69%
Test languages: English

Related certifications:
IBM Certified System Administrator - Connections 4.0

Exam 402: Administering IBM Connections 4.0

Exam Competencies

Description: Covers IBM Connections material as it relates to these competency areas:
Architecture
Installation and Migration
Security
General Administration
Core IBM Connections Configuration
Additional Configuration
Customization
Integration
Troubleshooting

Architecture
Understand database environment
Understand security paradigm
Understand IBM Connections architecture

Installation and Migration
Pre-Install
Installing IBM WebSphere Application Server
Setting up federated repositories
Creating databases
Populating the Profiles database
Install
Install as a non-root user
How to do GUI, silent and console mode install
Post-Install
Understand post-install activities
Plan and install IBM Connections mail
IBM Cognos Install
Install IBM Cognos
Configure IBM Cognos
Understand IBM Cognos Admin Tasks
Migration
Understand Migration Options
Migrate Content Store

Security
Configure and understand administrative user for applications
Install and configure SSL certificates
Enable single sign-on
Configure the AJAX Proxy

General Administration
Run wsadmin tasks
Manage trash and disk space
Manage the Content Store
Backup and recovery
Configure IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator scripts
Setup and run sync all assembly lines
Install of fix packs v. cumulative release v. ifix
Rebuild a search index
Monitor performance, tuning
Understand the Default Scheduler
Understand SaND administration

Core IBM Connections Configuration
Changing IBM WebSphere environment variables
Customize HTTPD.conf
Configure ATOM feeds, user ID, and profile extensions in profilesconfig.xml
Configure LotusConnections-config.xml
Edit config files
Configure profile extensions
Configure Communities Catalog
Administer the News application
Disable modules
Configure moderation and notification
Configure the home page
Configure Search
Prevent the display of email addresses
Configure mobile devices

Additional Configuration
Define a reverse caching proxy
Configure IBM Connections Mail
Understand Profile events

Customization
Customize Profiles UI in profiles-config.xml
Use the Customization directory
Customize headers, footers, CSS and themes (Communities, Blogs)
Install new widgets

Integration
Business Cards
Integrate with other products

Troubleshooting
Collect data for Support via ISA Lite or manually
Enable tracing via ISA Lite or manually
Troubleshoot User Lifecycle
Verify that Profiles worker is running correctly
Troubleshoot user access issues
Troubleshoot IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator
Troubleshoot inter-server communication
Troubleshoot single sign-on
Troubleshoot IBM Connections databases
Troubleshoot an IBM Connections database with database client
Troubleshoot JDBC connections
Troubleshoot customizations
Troubleshoot search
Troubleshoot plugins
Troubleshoot notifications
Troubleshoot mobile devices

IBM Certified System Administrator - Connections 4.0
Job Role Description / Target Audience
This intermediate level certification is intended for system administrators who plan for and perform the installation, configuration and day-to-day tasks associated with ensuring the smooth and efficient operation of an IBM Connections 4.0 environment. This includes tasks associated with:

Architecture
Installation and Migration
Security
General Administration
Configuration and Customization
Integration
Troubleshooting

This administrator is generally self-sufficient and is able to perform most of the tasks involved in the role with limited assistance from peers, product documentation and vendor support services.

Prerequisite skills required:
A working knowledge of IBM WebSphere Application Server, including but not limited to: the Integrated Solutions Console and WSAdmin commands.
An understanding of the relationships between IBM Connections 4.0, WebSphere Application Server, IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator, and LDAP.
A working knowledge of database software and architecture.
A basic understanding of how Connections 4.0 may integrate with other products (e.g., IBM Lotus Sametime, IBM Lotus Notes, IBM Lotus Domino, IBM WebSphere Portal).

A working knowledge of security protocols, including but not limited to securing web applications with SSL.

Requirements
This certification requires 1 test(s).
Test C2040-402 - Administering IBM Connections 4.0

QUESTION 1
Bill must perform on-line backups. Of the following, which should be the first step?

A. He must backup the database before the file system.
B. He must tell the wiki IBM WebSphere Application Server to quit.
C. He must stop the IBM HTTP Server.
D. He should open the WebSphere Application Server administration client and select on-line
backup modeling.

Answer: A

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 2
What is the default Connections DB2 username used to access Connections DB2 tables?

A. wsadmin
B. lcuser
C. lcadmin
D. dbadmin

Answer: B

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 3
What is the purpose of the dsx-admin role?

A. It is used by all applications to control which user IDs can query for seedlist information.
B. It is used by all applications that make widgets available within Communities.
C. It is used by Profiles and Communities to retrieve user or community data.
D. It is used as a system-level user for application-to-application communications.

Answer: C

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements describes the role of IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator in an IBM
Connections 4.0 environment?

A. It provides a mechanism for the underlying IBM WebSphere Application Server to authenticate
against an LDAP directory.
B. It provides a mechanism to populate the Profiles database with LDAP user information and to
keep the same synchronized.
C. It provides Connectors that allow IBM WebSphere Portal server to access various file-system
directories on different systems.
D. It provides a ready-made solution to keep multiple,supported LDAP directories synchronized.

Answer: B

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 5
Kevin, the IBM Connections administrator, wants to enable IBM WebSphere Application Server
administrative security. Which of the following statements about federated repositories is true?

A. Connections 4.0 supports federated repositories,however the default file-based user registry
must be deleted.
B. Connections 4.0 supports federated repositories,and the default file based registry can coexist
with as many additional LDAP user registriesas required.
C. Connections 4.0 does not require a federated repository configuration as it supports a
standalone LDAP repository.
D. Connections 4.0 support for federated repositories provides the flexibility of allowing multiple
users with the same user ID and distinguishedname (DN).

Answer: B

Explanation:

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C2020-605 IBM Cognos 10 Controller Developer

Test information:
Number of questions: 94
Time allowed in minutes: 120
Required passing score: 65%
Test languages: English

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Developer - Cognos 10 Controller

This test will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to set up a Controller application by creating account and company structures, and set up the consolidation processes such as currency conversion, intercompany transactions, and investments in subsidiaries. The successful candidate must also be able to design and generate financial reports used for financial analysis.

Create Company Structures (5%)
Distinguish between the company types
Describe how consolidation types settings affect the company structures

Create Account Structures (12%)
Describe how reconciliation between accounts settings handles reconciliation of opening balances
Describe the effect of entering an investment code for an account
Describe a scenario for using movement accounts
Identify how to generate movement accounts
Describe the effect of using statistical and non-statistical account types for movement accounts
Identify how integrated and non-integrated movement accounts affect reconciliation
Describe the benefits of connecting extended dimensions to accounts

Set up General Configuration (14%)
Distinguish between weekly/daily actualities and linked actualities
Describe the effect of enabling the advance account view setting
Describe the benefits of using multiple submission
Describe the effect of enabling Set Status for Submission to Ready After Reconciliation
Distinguish between reconciliation made by Journal Type and Closing Version
Describe how the reporting status is affected by reconciliation settings Total Difference and Difference per Row
Using Method 1, distinguish between currency conversion differences account1 and currency conversion differences account2
Describe the impact of main settings and the reserves
Explain the impact of changing account type settings

Enable Data Entry and Data Import (19%)
Distinguish between different form types
Describe the purpose of forms sets
Describe the impact of using multiple submissions with form sets
Describe any of the functions of the Form Properties
Describe how to use linked structures to limit data entry view
Distinguish between using the data entry view and the Excel link to add data
Describe the process of adding movement accounts to forms
Describe a scenario for creating a link between forms
Identify the different structures that can be imported and the process
Identify the different ways that data can be imported into Controller
Describe the process of creating an import specification

Create Journals and Closing Versions (5%)
Define the relationship between journal type and closing version
Identify the two ways to enter data into company journals
Describe scenarios for copying journals from one period to another
Determine impact of adjusting data on group journals versus company journals

Prepare for Currency Conversion (11%)
Identify when rules for currency conversion are defined
Identify the workflow for converting foreign currency
Using currency conversion Method 1, identify the commonly used currency codes for P&L accounts, Balance Sheet accounts, and Equity accounts
Distinguish between the currency register and the historical register
Describe a scenario for entering historical rates when a company rolls up to several group currencies
Distinguish between currency conversion codes C and I when converting values for a company journal

Configure the Control Tables (9%)
Explain the purpose of acquisition control tables
Explain the purpose of intercompany elimination control tables
Identify the process for enabling automatic journal entries
Identify the impact of the offset account in control tables

Eliminate and Reconcile Intercompany transactions and acquisitions (10%)
Identify when counter dimensions are used
Identify the ways intercompany balances can be eliminated
Identify the effect of storing intercompany adjustments as group journals
Identify how to enter data in the investment register for subsidiaries and associated companies
Explain scenarios when no balance control would be used in the investment register
Describe the importance of defining a start period for acquisition calculations
Describe the ways to run reports for reconciling data reported as intercompany balances
Identify the impact of using Use Online Matching

Consolidate a Group's Reported Values (5%)
Distinguish between consolidating by steps and consolidating by status
Identify the reports needed to analyze consolidation

Secure the Application and the Data (4%)
Describe the benefits of creating security groups
Describe the benefits of creating user rights
Describe how using period locking at a company level affects the closing version
Distinguish between locking the period for data entry only and locking the period entirely

Create Reports to Analyze Data (6%)
Identify the performance considerations when creating reports
Distinguish the benefits between creating a Report Generator report and an Excel Link report
Describe the Report Conversion functionality when creating user-defined reports in Controller

QUESTION 2
How can an administrator validate company structures to ensure that they meet the application's
rules?

A. Verify Structures menu
B. Verify Companies menu
C. Company structure log file
D. Consolidation structures log file

Answer: A

Explanation:

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QUESTION 3
An administrator created a company journal. The administrator then added several transactions to
the journal. The accounts in these transactions use currency conversion code I. By default, if there
is no amount for the previous year (no local amount or converted amount), what rate is used to
convert the local amount for the current year?

A. The previous year's closing rate
B. The previous year's opening rate
C. The previous year's average rate
D. The previous year's data is not used

Answer: A

Explanation:

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QUESTION 4
What is the difference between currency conversion codes I and C?

A. Code I uses no currency conversion for the opening balance; code C copies prior year's average rate.
B. Code C copies prior year's average rate for opening balance; code I calculates prior year's closing rate
C. Code I calculates opening balance rate, code C copies the opening balance amount.
D. Code C copies prior year's average rate; code I uses prior year's closing rate for opening balance.

Answer: C

Explanation:

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700-260 Advanced Security Architecture for Account Manager

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QUESTION: No: 1
Increased employee productivity, confidence in data confidentiality, and increased visibility are features
that demonstrate which Cisco business value?

A. Cost effectiveness
B. Protection
C. Control
D. Flexibility
E. Completeness

Answer: C

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QUESTION: No: 2
Which licensing feature enables customers to better manage their software assets and optimize their IT
spending?

A. Cisco ONE
B. Smart Accounts
C. Enterprise License Agreements
D. License Bundling

Answer: B

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QUESTION: No: 3
Which Cisco network security solution helps protect against threats by monitoring and responding to any
network anomalies, continually analyzing for potential threats and reacting to them in real time?

A. Cisco Security Manager
B. Cisco ASA Firewall Senrices
C. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
D. Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
E. Cisco Web Security Appliance
F. Cisco Email Security Appliance
G. Cisco Identity Services Engine
H. Cisco Site-to-Site VPN

Answer: D

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QUESTION: No: 4
Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence?

A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
B. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
C. Cisco Identity Senrices Engine
D. Cisco Security Manager
E. Cisco TrustSec

Answer: A

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C2010-530 IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.6 Infrastructure and Implementation

Test C2010-530: IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.6 Infrastructure and Implementation

Test information:
Number of questions: 73
Time allowed in minutes: 120
Required passing score: 64%
Languages: English


An IBM Certified Deployment Professional - Maximo Asset Management V7.6 infrastructure and implementation is a technical professional responsible for the planning, installation, configuration, administration, tuning and problem determination of a IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.6 environment. This individual will be expected to perform these tasks with limited assistance from peers, product documentation, and support resources.

Planning (12%)
Define the logical sequence of events for a successful Maximo installation

Explain the Java Enterprise Edition configuration concepts

Identify the functionality in IBM Maximo Asset Management that can be separated across Application Servers (JVMs)

Explain application server (JVM) performance concepts and optimization settings

Explain the database requirements and configuration

Identify initial configuration data and define proper input sequence

Explain the different security features and options available

Explain the IBM Maximo Asset Management upgrade process from 7.5 to 7.6


Installation and Upgrade (16%)
Demonstrate the configuration of security needed to install IBM Maximo Asset Management

Demonstrate IBM Maximo Asset Management installation sequence

Prepare IBM Maximo Asset Management database schema

Prepare IBM Maximo Asset Management application server

Use the different IBM Maximo Asset Management installation components and tools

Demonstrate installation troubleshooting

Verify which version of IBM Maximo Asset Management has been installed

Validate the installation using the installValidation utility and the TPAE configuration tool

Validate middleware installation and configuration


System Level Configuration (22%)
Enable Application Server Security

Configure the Maximo Integration Framework

Configure the IBM Maximo Asset Management system properties

Build and deploy Maximo EAR files

Configure Cron Tasks

Configure a Workflow Process

Configure IBM Maximo Asset Management logging

Configure the database objects

Create new or configure an existing application

Configure Conditional Expressions


Application Level Configuration (18%)
Configure Item and Company Sets

Configure Organization and Site

Configuration of the General Ledger (GL) component structure

Configure a Security Group

Describe the implentation of Automation Scripting

Configure Domains

Configure Start Center

Configure attached documents

Discuss the usage of Migration Manager and creation of Migration Packages

Identify the reporting options available and configuration tools


Administration (18%)
Describe the Organization and Site settings

Administer Security Groups

Manage Administration Resources for Labor assignment

Manage Escalations

Manage Workflows

Administer Maximo Integration Framework

Use of Report Administration

Managing Adhoc Reports


Performance Tuning and Problem Determination (14%)
Assess application server performance

Analyze database performance issues

Analyze query efficiency

Review Start Center portlets

Define IBM Maximo Asset Management log settings and analyze log files

Explain Diagnostic Tools

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C2010-506 IBM TRIRIGA Real Estate Manager V10.3 Application Consultant

Test information:
Number of questions: 52
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 73%
Languages: English
Related certifications:

IBM Certified Application Consultant - TRIRIGA Real Estate Manager V10.3

Study Guide for the certification test.
Below are the high level objectives for this exam. We recommend reviewing the Study Guide for more detailed information on the test objectives to provide a better idea of the content which will be covered on the exam.

Section 1: Real Estate Concepts
Given knowledge of real estate leasing, define some of the common real estate leasing terms so that they can be explained to a client.

Section 2: Real Estate Contracts
Given that TRIRIGA is installed, the Portfolio is properly configured and loaded with data, the user has a license to the Real Estate module and the proper security permissions, create and populate an Owned Property (Fee) Agreement in the TRIRIGA system so that an activated Owned Property (Fee) Agreement is created for use in tracking, managing and reporting on owned property assets in TRIRIGA.

Given that TRIRIGA is installed, the Portfolio is properly configured and loaded with data, the user has a license to the Real Estate module and the proper security permissions, create and populate an Real Estate Lease in the TRIRIGA system so that a Real Estate Lease can be used in tracking, managing and reporting on lease assets in TRIRIGA.

Given that TRIRIGA is installed, the Portfolio is properly configured and loaded with data, the user has a license to the Real Estate module and the proper security permissions, describe the four different methods and the related steps to enter a lease into the TRIRIGA system so that the consultant can determine and perform the best method based upon their customers requirements.

Given that TRIRIGA is installed, the user has a license to the Real Estate module and the proper security permissions, describe the real estate leasing lifecycle within TRIRIGA so that the consultant can properly advise their clients of the process flow.

Given that an understanding of real estate, compare Owned Property (Fee) Agreement to Real Estate Lease in the TRIRIGA system so that the stated differences between the Real Estate Contract and the Owned Property (Fee) Agreement have been clarified and the consultant will be able to direct the client to use the appropriate record.

Given knowledge of real estate, explain the critical real estate leasing concepts so that the consultant will use appropriate terminology when working with the client.

Given knowledge of the Real Estate module, explain the aspects of a real estate leasing so that the consultant will use appropriate terminology when working with the client.

Given that TRIRIGA is installed, the Portfolio is properly configured and loaded with data, the user has a license to the Real Estate module and the proper security permissions, create a Clause in a Real Estate Lease in the TRIRIGA system so that a clause has been created to support functionality in a TRIRIGA Real Estate Contract.

Given real estate industry knowledge, explain the rental income stream throughout the life of a lease so that a consultant can explain it to their client.

Given real estate industry knowledge, define Percent Rent in the TRIRIGA system so that the consultant can be effective in communicating this understanding during implementation of Tririga Real Estate with a client.

Given that TRIRIGA is installed, the Portfolio is properly configured and loaded with data, the user has a license to the Real Estate module and the proper security permissions, define capital vs operating expense requirements in the TRIRIGA system so that the consultant can determine the best method of use based upon the customers requirements.

Given that TRIRIGA is installed, the user has a license to the Real Estate module and the proper security permissions, create and/or execute an Option on a Contract so that options can be tracked on a lease.

Given that TRIRIGA is installed, the Portfolio is properly configured and loaded with data, the user has a license to the Real Estate module and the proper security permissions, describe the two different methods to create, process and change/update a payment schedule on a lease in the TRIRIGA system so that Real Estate payments are effectively entered and processed for the life of the contract.

Given that TRIRIGA is installed, the Portfolio is properly configured and loaded with data and the user has a license to the Real Estate module and the proper security permissions, describe the process for setting up an Operating Expense / Common Area Maintenance Clause and performing the periodic Payment Reconciliation so that the OPEX/CAM Clause has been entered and is effectively reconciled each period.

Given that TRIRIGA is installed, the Portfolio is properly configured and loaded with data, the user has a license to the Real Estate module and the proper security permissions, describe the method of creating an amendment of a Real Estate Lease so that the Real Estate Lease is effectively amended to reflect new contractual changes.

Given that TRIRIGA is installed, the Portfolio is properly configured and loaded with data, the user has a license to the Real Estate module and the proper security permissions, describe the method for defining and processing indexed rent adjustments so that Real Estate Lease rent payments are updated with the new indexed amounts.

Section 3: Real Estate Transaction Management
Given that TRIRIGA installed, a license to use the Real Estate module, user has appropriate security permissions, CTQ Templates, RE Transaction Plan Templates, Real Estate Contract templates have all been properly created as necessary, all application settings are properly configured as necessary; describe the real estate transaction lifecycle within Tririga so that the consultant can properly advise their customers' of the process flow.

Given that TRIRIGA installed, a license to use the Real Estate module, user has appropriate security permissions, create RE Action Request as an entry point to the RE Transaction Plan so that a real estate requirement has been documented.

Given knowledge of real estate, summarize the benefits of using a Real Estate Transaction Plan so that the benefits can be explained to the client.

Given that client requires an understanding of the product features summarize the benefits of using RE Projects so as to provide a positive understanding of the value and capability of the feature set.

Section 4: Real Estate Common Functionality
Given knowledge of real estate and TRIRIGA, describe the interaction between Real Estate Contracts and portfolio so that portfolio elements that the Real Estate Contracts reference are identified.

Given that TRIRIGA is installed, the Portfolio is properly configured and loaded with data, the user has a license to the Real Estate module and the proper security permissions, describe the method for requiring Real Estate Lease Contact roles so that RE Contract has proper contact roles defined.

Given TRIRIGA is installed, the Portfolio is properly configured and loaded with data, the user has a license to the Real Estate module and the proper security permissions, describe the different notifications that are used in a Real Estate Lease and how they can be generated in the TRIRIGA Real Estate module so that the consultant has defined system generated and manual notifications.

Given that client requires an understanding of the product benefits, summarize document storage so as to provide a understanding of the value and capability of the feature set.

Given expertise in real estate, define financial terminology so that the consultant can explain financial terminology to the client.

Given that TRIRIGA is installed, the user has a license to the Real Estate module and the proper security permissions, describe the out-of-the-box reporting so that the consultant understands the reporting available in the TRIRIGA application.

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QUESTION 1
TRIRIGA Projects offers enterprise project management, program management, fund source management and vendor bid management capabilities to deliver which business benefits?

A. Simplified navigation and control, adaptive portal layouts and streamlined application processes
B. Comprehensive suite of operational and analytical applications
C. Single technology platform, scalability and enterprise interoperability
D. All of the above

Answer: C

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QUESTION 2
Identify the license type which allows converting a concurrent core license to the Integrated Workplace Manager (IWM) license.

A. Allowed under the S&S contract
B. One-time upgrade license
C. Trade-up license
D. Must purchase an additional IWM license

Answer: C

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QUESTION 3
What is a benefit of the TRIRIGA Workplace Enterprise-Class Application system?

A. A single suite of modular applications that manages across the entire workplace function
B. Five low-cost stand-alone applications integrated using Omnibus and SOAP interfaces
C. Automates EH&S regulatory compliance
D. Fully compliant with Sarbanes-Oxley regulatory requirements

Answer: A

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QUESTION 4
All pricing includes first year maintenance and support.

A. True
B. False
C. Only for first-time purchases of the software
D. Only for additional license purchases after initial order

Answer: A

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